Lazarus and the Rich Man
[A Scriptural Journey Through the Intriguing Parable of Lazarus and the Rich
Man]
L. Ray Smith
Before reading my opening statement there will be many who will find fault
with this paper. "What parable?" they will ask. Contrary to all the Scriptural
proof that Luke 16:19-31 is indeed a classic example of a parable, there are
many who deny this fact. The reason for so many desiring to take this parable
literally is an attempt to add credence to the heretical teaching that God
Almighty is going to torture the vast majority of all humanity who has ever
lived by burning their flesh with real fire in a hellhole of insane pain for all
eternity. But even if we take this parable literally, it still does not support
such an absurd and evil teaching. When the truth is seen, the Rich man is
overcome with great emotional torment by whatever "this flame" represents, but
he is not physically being burned or barbecued in this flame..
That the Rich man is in a most distressful situation, there is no argument.
But he is not "burning in eternal hell fire." That Lazarus is being comforted,
there is also no argument, but neither is he presently basking in the sunshine
of heaven. The two main figures in this parable represent whole nations of
people who are either being shown the spiritual things of God or are being
blinded to the spiritual things of God. The situation looks particularly grim
and bleak for the Rich man, but certainly not hopeless as is taught in the
pulpits of mainstream Christianity.
Unfortunately, the parable of Lazarus and the Rich man has become a sort of
theological passport to the annihilation of hundreds of plain and exact verses
of Scripture. Next to the gross error in translating the Greek aion (a period of
time with a beginning and an end) into an English eternity (no time at all,
neither having a beginning nor an ending), I know of no greater
misrepresentation of any section of Scripture than this parable. I will be using
both the KJV and the Concordant Literal New Testament when quoting Scripture in
this paper.
Can those who teach that Luke 16 is not a parable, prove their position? No,
they can not. Can it then be proved by the Scriptures that this is a parable?
Yes, it can. Quite easily, I might add.
PARABLE DEFINED
Let me give you a technical definition of a parable followed by a more simple
definition: (1) "Parable: [Greek, para bole’= BESIDE CAST]--A statement ‘cast
beside’ or parallel to its real spiritual significance, a figure of likeness in
action." GREEK-ENGLISH KEYWORD CONCORDANCE p. 216. (2) "A short and simple tale
based on familiar things meant to convey a much deeper and profound moral or
spiritual truth," WEBSTER’S DICTIONARY. In Old English it was called a
"near-story."
Jesus spoke in parables throughout His whole ministry. In Matthew chapter 13
we are given seven different parables. No parable is literal or historical. The
second we make a parable literal, it ceases to be a parable. Jesus spoke ONLY in
parables (not true life or historical stories) among the masses of people who
followed Him wherever He went.
I am going to some length to demonstrate the absolute absurdity of teaching
this parable of Lazarus or any other parable as a literal and historical event.
PARABLES MAY MENTION IDENTIFIABLE PERSONS
Is Luke 16:19-31 a "parable?" Many in orthodoxy say that it absolutely is not
a parable because a person is mentioned by name and identified as a specific and
particular person. The mention of an identifiable person is not, however, the
test of a parable. Besides other parables do mention identifiable persons, but
they are still parables:
Mark 4:15 Mentions Satan
Matt. 13:37 Mentions The Son of man
Matt. 13:39 Mentions The devil
Matt. 15:13 Mentions God the Father
II Sam. 12:7 Is said to be King David
Ezek. 23:1-4 Mentions Aholah and Aholibah
Luke 4:23 Jesus applies ‘Physician’ to HIMSELF
JESUS SPEAKS TO THE MASSES IN PARABLES ONLY
Jesus spoke to the Pharisees and multitudes in parables:
"And He begins to speak to them in parables." (Mk.. 12:1).
Jesus spoke to the multitudes in parables ONLY:
"All these things Jesus speaks in parables to the throngs, and apart from a
parable He spoke nothing to them..." (Mat. 13:34).
Jesus spoke in parables so that his listeners would not understand Him:
"Wherefore art Thou speaking in parables to them? ... To you has it been
given to know the secrets of the kingdom of the heavens, yet to those it has NOT
been given." (Matt.. 13:10-11).
Not even the apostles understood these parables (Lk, 16:14)! Jesus had to
explain their meaning to them in private (Mat. 13:18, 36), (Mat. 15:15),
etc.
The fact that Jesus spoke to the masses in parables only, ought to be
sufficient Scriptural evidence to anyone that Lazarus and the Rich man is indeed
a parable. There are, however, many many more proofs.
A FIVE-PART PARABLE
What is the setting of this Lazarus parable? Actually it is the last of a
five-part parable beginning in Chapter 15 of Luke. Here is the reason for these
five parables in a row:
"Now ALL the tribute collectors and sinners were coming near Him to be
hearing Him. And both the Pharisees and the scribes grumbled, saying that ‘This
man sinners is receiving, and is eating with them!" (Luke 15:1).
Verse 2:
"Now He told them [the tax collectors, sinners, Pharisees, and scribes] THIS
PARABLE, saying..."
Jesus then gives them FIVE parables, one after the other. The phrase "THIS
parable" certainly is not limited to the next, one, parable only!
These are ALL parables and most scholars recognize them as parables.
My Oxford KJV even has at the top of the page over the parable of the
prodigal son, these words: "The parable of the prodigal son." The text does not
call it a parable, but certainly it follows that it IS the third part of a
five-part parable.
Notice the transition that Jesus uses between the lost sheep and the lost
coin? He says, "Neither..." Some translations have "Or..." This word certainly
connects it to the previous parable! Now notice Chapter 16 first verse, "And He
said ALSO unto his disciples..." "Also" refers back to all that went before in
this five-part parable, and now Jesus is continuing with the same train of
thought with the fourth of this five-part parable.
Notice next the introduction of the third, fourth, and fifth parables:
"A CERTAIN MAN..." (15:11)
"There was A CERTAIN RICH MAN..." (16:1).
"There was A CERTAIN RICH MAN..." (16:19).
Again, it is clear that these are THREE parables of a five-part parable!
PARABLES MUST ALWAYS BE INTERPRETED
Parables are not to be taken literally. They are to be understood
"figuratively." The real meaning is not in what they literally say, but in what
the symbols and figurative language represent. That’s why they are called
"parables." This is axiomatic!
Let us turn to some parables for proof of this point:
The Prodigal Son (Luke 15:32)
"...this thy brother was dead..."
Comment: He wasn’t literally "dead." He came home again "alive." God did not
resurrect him from the dead. The Resurrection is yet future.
So the prodigal was NOT literally dead, but from the perspective of his
father, he was as good as dead or he could have been considered Spiritually
dead.
Parable of the Sower (Matt. 13:3-23)
"And when he sowed, some seeds fell by the way side; and the fowls came and
devoured them up."
Comment: This parable isn’t teaching horticulture. It’s about "the word of
the kingdom" and how different people receive it! Birds don’t literally devour
the words of God.
Sowing Ideal Seed (Matt. 13:24)
"Yet, while the men are drawsing, his enemy came and sows darnel..."
Comment: The enemy "came." Past tense. Is this, therefore, an historical
fact? No. Read verse 39: "Now the harvest is the conclusion of the eon." This
eon hasn’t come to an "end" yet. And the "harvest" is people not grains and
vegetables.
Parable of mote in brother’s eye (Lk. 6:39-42).
"Now why are you observing the mote in your brother’s eye, yet the beam in
your own eye your are not considering?"
Comment: A beam is a long piece of timber. How is it possible to have a long
piece of timber in one’s eye?I know people who could fit it into their mouth,
but eye, never. This parable is about morality, not body organs and building
materials.
Is it not obvious that the literal, physical language in all parables must be
interpreted as a higher, spiritual lesson?
If the parable of Lazarus and the rich man is both literal and an historical
fact, then it contradicts not only the laws of physics and logic, but also
literally hundreds of plain verses of Scripture.
People are taught that the parables are real stories that Jesus told to help
the people understand His teaching better. That’s partly due to the fact that
with many of the parables we are also given the INTERPRETATION! How many would
understand these parables if we were not given the interpretation of them? Who
would have known Who the sower of seed is? Who would know what the stony places
are? Who would understand what the birds represent? Who would know what the good
soil represents?
Sure, it’s easy now, Jesus TOLD US THE ANSWERS! But He ONLY told His
disciples the answers, NOT THE MULTITUDES to whom He spoke!
THE PARABLE OF LAZARUS AND THE RICH MAN
According to the popular teaching of this parable, the Rich man is in an
eternal Hell of torture and Lazarus is in eternal Heavenly bliss. Well let’s be
sure then to pay special attention to those traits of character that have
separated these two individuals into two entirely different realms.
Below is listed in each column the exact "literal" facts regarding each man’s
character, virtue and deeds that is the reason for a supposed fate of either
eternal Hell or eternal Heaven:
THE RICH MAN
LAZARUS
He was RICH ... Ver 19 He was POOR
... Ver 20
He wore PURPLE & CAMBRIC ... Ver 19
He made
MERRY (Gk: cheerful, & glad) SPLENDIDLY [like Angels-Acts 10:30] DAILY ...
Ver 19 Probably CRIPPLED ("was laid") Ver 20
DISEASED ("full of sores") Ver
20
He had a nice HOUSE ("his gate") Ver 20
He gave
Lazarus FOOD [Gk. psichion, "a particle of food left over"-scraps] Ver 21
HUNGRY ("desiring to be fed") Ver 21
He DIED and was [Gk. entombed] Ver 22
He DIED Ver 22
He lifts up his eyes in [Gk. hades "the UNSEEN or
IMPERCEPTIBLE] Ver 23 Is "carried by the angels into Abraham's bosom" Ver 22
He is in TORMENTS ... Ver 22
He's ALIVE with a BODY, "eyes,'
Ver 23
He's ALIVE with a BODY, "finger "Ver 24
He desires a drop of
WATER ... Ver 24
In life he got GOOD things ... Ver 25 In
life he got EVIL things ... Ver 25
He is respectful toward authority
("FATHER Abraham") Ver 24
He was TORMENTED ... Ver 25 Was
COMFORTED [Gk. parakaleo = "to comfort when in distress"] Ver.
25
He could not cross the GULF ... Ver 26 He could not cross the
GULF ... Ver 26
Exhibits LOVE toward his family even while in torment ("I
have five brothers") Ver 28
PLEADS for their welfare
("Nay..") Ver 30
Examine these two columns closely. Is it not obvious that what is literally
revealed here does not lend itself to an eternal life of torture for the Rich
man or an eternal life of heavenly bliss for the poor man? Where else in
Scripture do the character traits in the left column come under eternal
condemnation? And where else in Scripture do the character traits in the right
column bring a promise of salvation in Heaven? Seriously, WHERE?
From what is literally stated about these two individuals it is hard to find
condemnation or praise for either party. We know for sure that the Rich man is
in a state of condemnation and that Lazarus is in a state of consolement, but
there is nothing in the narrative to tell us why this is so.
If taken literally, this parable consists of statements that are illogical,
unscriptural, contradictory, and impossible. But, when we understand the
symbolism of this parable, it opens up our understanding to God’s dealing with
all peoples on earth! We must know the real identity of these two individuals
before we can know that their treatment is a just treatment based on their lives
and based on God’s grace.
The Rich man received "good things" in life and Lazarus received "evil
things" in life. That is obviously true. However, neither of those is Scriptural
grounds for either being rewarded or condemned. Where? Present a Scripture.
Christ said that it is difficult for a rich man to inherit the Kingdom, for
example, and that certainly is true. But it is not the fact of being rich that
makes this so, but rather the power that wealth has over the soul to keep one
from pursuing spiritual things. Some people are "rich" and are right with God.
Other people are "rich" and are not right with God. But the bottom line is how
God has constituted the person himself that makes the difference, not the fact
that he is wealthy.
Don’t suppose that I am siding with the Rich man at the expense of Lazarus. I
am not. I am merely showing how ludicrous it is to insist that this parable is
"literal."
A VERSE BY VERSE ANALYSIS
Verse by verse now we will see if this parable can possibly be taken
literally. Luke 16:19:
DOES A WELL-DRESSED WEALTHY MAN SPELL SIN?
"Now a certain man was rich..."
Many reading these words immediately conclude that being rich must be a sin.
This is the one outstanding feature of this man--he is RICH. Is that a sin?
Abraham, just talking distance away here, was very rich (Gen. 13:2). Isaac was
rich, Jacob was rich, Joseph was rich, David (a man after God’s own heart) was
rich. Job was the richest man in all the East (Job. 1:3). And it was God Who
blessed them, that’s why they were rich. Being rich is no character flaw or
sin.
Besides, the Scriptures say:
"...God is not to be sneered at, for whatsoever a man may be sowing, this
shall be reaping also..." (Gal. 6:7)
And "...who is sowing sparingly, sparingly shall be reaping also, and who is
sowing bountifully, bountifully shall be reaping also..." (II Cor. 9:6-7).
"...he dressed in purple and fine linen (cambric)
[Gk bussos = COTTON] probably of a fine quality, perhaps a cloth with cotton
in the warp and flax in the woof.
Why should we care what color or what fabric of clothing he wore? Fine
clothing are not a sin. What does that have to do with a man’s character,
virtue, or deeds? If taken "literally," nothing. But since this is "symbolic" it
then is THE KEY TO UNDERSTANDING THE WHOLE PARABLE!
The description of the Rich man’s clothing and the position of Lazarus in
Abraham’s bosom are the two vital keys in understanding this whole parable.
"...daily making merry [Gk. cheerful & glad] splendidly..."
Is having a cheerful and glad spirit a sin? I don’t think so. Paul says:
"...that I may be of good cheer..." (Phil. 2:19). David’s heart was "glad" (
Acts 2:26). And the angels dressed "splendidly" (Acts 10:30).
IS POVERTY AND SICKNESS A VIRTUE?
"Now there was a certain poor man..."
Being poor is no virtue! In fact the Scriptures have a lot to say about
poverty:
"...a little folding of the hands to sleep: So shall thy poverty come..."
(Prov. 6:10-11).
"He becometh poor that dealeth with a slack hand..." (Prov. 10:4).
"...The soul of the sluggard desireth, and hath nothing..." (Prov. 13:4).
Many Scriptures show poverty to be the direct result of sin.
Again, Gal. 6:7, II Cor. 9:6-7. It is God Who makes both rich and poor (I
Sam. 2:7).
"...named Lazarus..." [Heb: helpless]
Why should we know his name if this is literal? Lazarus was a common name.
And who would ever want to be named "Helpless?"
We are not given the name of the Rich man. What does it matter one way or the
other what his name is if this is a literal story and we don’t know which
Lazarus this was anyway. Ah, but since this is a "parable" it does matter, and
we CAN know which Lazarus this really is and who the rich man really is.
"...who had been cast at his portal (gate)..."
Being thrown out into the street is no virtue.
"...having sores [Gk. elkos = DRAWER] (ulcers)..."
Being sick and diseased is not a virtue. Diseases associated with "the botch,
open sores, boils and ulcers" are very often a direct curse from God in the
Scriptures. See: Ex. 9:2, Job 2:7, Deut. 28:27, 35, Rev. 16:2, and many others.
"...yearning to be satisfied from the scraps (not crumbs)
[Gk. psichion = SCRAPS--A particle of food which is left over after eating]
which are falling from the rich man’s table."
It is no virtue to be begging for bread. "Crumbs falling from a table" is an
idiom, not literal. I have eaten at "Rich men’s tables" myself, from $25,000 a
place setting of China from the Ming Dynasty, and I assure you that scraps of
food were not falling from that table--Rich people do not eat like pigs! A few
"crumbs," is possible, but crumbs are not enough to feed a hungry ant, let alone
a grown man.
Besides, if Lazarus is a godly man why is he begging food? Read Psa.
37:25:
"...Yet have I not seen the righteous forsaken, NOR HIS SEED BEGGING BREAD"!
There is absolutely nothing in the discription of Lazarus that would indicate
he was a godly man. But when we identify him, there is much to show that he was
a godly man, and that his poverty and sickness was not that of a literally
diseased beggar in the street.
"But the curs (wild dogs) also, coming, licked his ulcers."
It is a dog’s nature to "lick sores," but they didn’t come to this man’s
house for that purpose. They came there to get "scraps" of food as well.
However, think for a moment. What does this bit of information add to our
understanding of this story if it is to be taken "literally?" Nothing! I mean
Jesus could have told us that, "the sky was cloudy" or "the cock was crowing" or
"there were holes in the street." So what? What do "wild dogs" add to our
understanding, if it’s literal? But we learn in Scripture that "dogs" represent
something totally different from four-legged animals that bark and bite. Here is
a real clue as to who Lazarus and his dog companions really represent. And as
this is a parable it was not physical scraps of literal food that Lazarus and
the dogs desired. Who then is this Rich man, who being tormented, nonetheless,
possessed and disseminated (albeit it small portions) of life-giving food to the
poor?
The Rich man, regardless of his character or lack thereof, was obviously
blessed of God:
"The Lord shall make thee plenteous in goods..." (Deut. 28:11).
And "...bless all the work of thine hand" (Ver 12).
As he sewed, so he reaped (Gal. 6:7, II Cor. 9:6-7).
He got "good things in life" and the Scripture plainly tells us that
"Every GOOD gift is from above..." (Jas. 1:17).
Lazarus was obviously cursed of God:
"...thou shalt. not prosper" (Deut. 28:16).
The "botch and scab" (Ver. 27 & 29).
He obviously sewed sparingly and reaped even more sparingly. When one is
homeless, hungry, and diseased in the street; it doesn’t get much worse than
this.
CONTRADICTIONS OF A LITERAL INTERPRETATION
If this parable is taken literally, we will find more than a few hundred
major problems with the rest of God’s revealed Word.
One will have to use a black marker or cut from the Bible most verses dealing
with spirit, soul, body, death, resurrection, immortality, grave, hades, sheol,
sin, punishment, chastisement, firstfruits, rewards, justification,
reconciliation, prophecy, grace, salvation and the sovereignty of God, just to
name a few! All of these contradict the idea that this parable can be literal.
All of them.
"Now the poor man came to die and he is carried away by messengers into
Abraham’s bosom."
Impossible. This statement if taken literally is neither historical nor
Scriptural. Many say this represents Lazarus in Heaven. How, pray tell, could
Lazarus be in Heaven while his Lord was still on the earth?
"Yet now Christ has been roused from among the dead, the firstfruit of those
who are reposing." (I Cor. 15:20).
Abraham wasn’t the "firstfruit." Lazarus wasn’t the "firstfruit." JESUS
CHRIST WAS THE FIRSTFRUIT OF THEM THAT SLEPT! The latter fruit, Paul tells us,
"are [still] reposing."
Jesus plainly said, not only had David not ascended into the heavens, but
that
"NO MAN has ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven."(John
3:13).
Teaching that this parable is a literal historical fact makes Christ out to
be a liar. When our Lord was alive on this earth giving us this parable, He
said: "...NO MAN HAS ASCENDED UP TO HEAVEN..." So how can it be said that at the
same time our Lord was telling us that no man has ascended up to heaven, that
Lazarus and Abraham are already up in heaven? This is not just an interesting
sidelight or opinion of Ray Smith. THIS IS ABSOLUTE, INFALLIBLE SCRIPTURAL PROOF
THAT WHEN JESUS GAVE THIS PARABLE THERE WAS NO MAN NAMED LAZARUS LIVING IN
HEAVEN WITH ABRAHAM OR ANYONE ELSE!! So here then is just one of the hundreds of
problems with the Scriptures if we insist this parable is literal.
There are many Scriptures that tell us where a person goes when he"dies." The
Scriptures say he "returns" from where he "came." So if he goes to Heaven, then
he "came" from Heaven; if he goes to Hell, then he "came" from Hell. But
Scriptures do not teach that people "RETURN" to heaven or hell when they die.
Read these plain and simple verses that tell us exactly where man came from and
where he goes when he dies:
"...till you return [Hebrew, shub] unto the ground; for out of it were you
taken: for dust you are, and unto dust shall you return" (Gen. 3:17-19).
"Remember I pray you that as clay you did make me, and unto dust you will
cause me to return" (Job 10:9)
"You cause man to return unto dust..." (Psa. 90:3).
"His spirit [the Hebrew word here is ruach, spirit, not neshamah, breath]
goes forth, he returns to his earth; in that very day his thoughts perish" (Psa.
146:3-4).
"...you gather in their spirit [Hebrew ruach, spirit] they expire [Hebrew
gava, breathe out, gasp, expire], and return to their dust" (Psa. 104:29).
"For that which befalls the sons of men befalls beasts; ... as the one dies,
so dies the other; yea, they have all one spirit; and man has no preeminence
above the beasts [in death]: for all is vanity. All go unto one place; all are
of the dust, and all return to dust again" (Ecc. 3:18-21).
Will any of my readers seriously contend that BEASTS return to either heaven
or hell when they die? Have we not just read in Ecc. 3:18-21 that "ALL [both men
and beasts] go unto ONE PLACE?" And aren’t "heaven AND hell" TWO PLACES rather
that "ONE PLACE?" Am I going too fast for anyone?
For sure our Saviour’s words are so true--the babes in Christ (minors) can
understand these spiritual things, but the wise in the wisdom of this world
cannot understand them.
Here is irrefutable Scriptural proof that when a person dies he returns to
the dust. Messengers or angels don’t take dead people anywhere when they die. If
this is literal, then they would have had to carry a "dead" Lazarus into the
ancient cave of a "dead" Abraham. The "resurrection" is yet future (I Thes.
4:16:18).
Remember how Paul told us of Hymeneus and Philetus who "...swerve as to
truth, saying that the resurrection has ALREADY OCCURRED [as defenders of a
literal interpretation also contend] subverting the faith of some." (II Tim.
2:18)? Lazarus was carried (in the parable) into Abraham’s bosom. Abraham’s
bosom is not the reward of the saved. Abraham’s bosom is not Heaven.
Furthermore, no more than one person could fit into Abraham’s bosom. It’s a
parable.
When Jesus gave this parable was Abraham alive in heaven or dead in his
grave? First notice what Gen. 25:8-9 says:
"Then Abraham gave up the ghost, and died ... and his sons Isaac and Ishmael
buried him in a cave..."
When Jesus was teaching these parables Abraham was still dead. "Abraham IS
DEAD" (John 8:52)! After Christ’s crucifixion and resurrection (nearly 30 years
after) Abraham was still dead.
"By faith Abraham ... sojourns in the land of promise ... he waited for the
city having foundations, whose Artificer and Architect is God ... In faith DIED
ALL THESE [Abraham included], being not requited with the promises ... for He
[God] makes ready for them a city" (Heb. 11:8,9,10,13,16).
Abraham had not yet as of the writing of the book of Hebrews received the
promises God made to him. Besides Abraham was not promised Heaven, but this
earth along with King David (Jer. 30:9) and the Twelve Apostles who will be
ruling over the twelve tribes of Israel on this earth (Rev. 5:10). And the
"City," New Jerusalem, comes down from heaven to the New Earth.
By the way, after Christ’s resurrection, we read that King David as well was
also still dead.
"...David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulcher is with us unto
this day..." "For David is NOT ascended into the heavens..." (Acts 2:29 &
34).
So consider: At the time Christ taught this parable, Abraham was STILL DEAD,
David (a man after God’s own heart) was STILL DEAD and the Scripture
specifically tells us that David DID NOT ASCEND INTO HEAVEN. Then to remove all
doubt and speculation regarding heaven, Christ plainly stated that, "NO MAN HAS
ASCENDED INTO HEAVEN!" Which part of the word "NO" is it that theologians do not
understand?
"Now the rich man also died, and was entombed. And in the unseen [Gk: hades],
lifting up his eyes..." (Ver. 23)
Impossible. He died, was entombed, and lifted up his eyes? Where did he get a
body in hades, seeing that they just sealed his body in a tomb? Have you never
heard of exhuming a body from a grave? Six days, six months, six years after
death, when they open a grave, the body is still there. And it’s usually rotten
and the "eyes" are decayed away.
"...was entombed...and in the unseen [hades], lifting up his eyes..."
If, as theologians teach that the grave is one place and hades is another
place, then no man can have his body "entombed" while at the same time the eyes
of his body can be lifted up in a place called "hades." And we know his body was
still in the tomb, so how can he be simultaneously in hades with a new body?
And how could this man "literally" lift up his eyes in "hell" seeing that
hell is the translation of the Greek word hades which means the UNSEEN or
IMPERCEPTIBLE? To "see" one can’t be in the UNSEEN, nor can it be a place of NO
perception. The parable says that he "died" and was entombed, but that he "lifts
up his eyes" in hades. He can’t be literally dead and literally alive at the
same time and in two different locations.
Hades is a Greek word (and is synonymous with Sheol in the Hebrew O.T.) and
it has a meaning. The elements are "UN-PERCEIVED." It can be properly translated
into English as "unseen" or "imperceptible." Now how can one "see" in the
unseen?" It’s ridiculous. How can anyone have "perception" in the
"imperceptible?" The dead can’t "see," It’s a parable.
There is no consciousness in [Heb: Sheol] or [Gk: Hades](Psa. 146:4)--none.
"Sheol" and "Hades" are synonymous in Scripture.
In Acts 2:27 hades is translated from the Hebrew word sheol. Look carefully
at these two verses:
"His spirit [ruach] goes forth, he returns to his earth; in that very day his
thoughts perish" (Psa. 146-3-4).
And "...there is no works, nor device, nor knowledge, nor wisdom, in sheol
where you go" (Ecc. 9:10).
"Device" [Heb. mchesh- bown--contrivance, intelligence, reason]. Do these two
verses in Ecclesiasties sound like "dark sayings?" or "tricky proverbs?" or
"difficult parables?" or "deep mysteries?" They are plain, simple statements of
facts that any child can understand! But notice how they absolutely contradict
the "consciousness in hades" theory.
One more Scriptural proof on this point.
"And it came to pass, that the beggar DIED ... the rich man also DIED..."
(Luke 16:22).
So from verse 22 onward, the beggar and the rich man are IN DEATH! Now Psalm
6:5
"For IN DEATH THERE IS NO REMEMBRANCE OF THEE [The LORD], in THE GRAVE who
shall give thee [The LORD] thanks?"
So, is it possible to take this parable literally without violating Scripture
after Scripture after Scripture? I think not.
WHAT REALLY HAPPENS IN HADES?
According to many, these literally happen in Hades:
But
according to GOD, nothing happens in Hades:
Do these things
literally take place in hades or only figuratively? "lifting up his
eyes"
"existing in torments"
"is seeing"
"he shouting, said"
"cool
my tongue"
"I am pained"
"you are in pain" "No work"
"No
device"
No contrivance
No
intelligence
No reason
"No knowledge"
"No
wisdom"
"Not anything"
"No thoughts"
In the center column we have seeing, feeling, hearing, talking, and reason.
In the right column we have nothing. The center column is based on one parable
that should never be taken literally while the right column is quoted right from
the Scriptures.
DEATH IS LIKE SLEEP
I have heard many jeer the idea that souls "sleep" in death. Although the
phrase "soul sleep" itself is unscriptural, the idea that the dead are
"sleeping" is most Scriptural.
"And the Lord said unto Moses, Behold, thou shalt sleep with thy fathers..."
(Deut. 31:16).
"And when thy days be fulfilled, and thou [David] shalt sleep with thy
fathers. (II Sam. 7:12).
"David slept with his fathers..." (I Ki. 2:10).
"Solomon slept with his fathers..." I Ki. 11:43).
Job said, "...for now shall I sleep in the dust..." (Job 7:21).
Get this one: David said
"...lest I sleep the sleep of DEATH..." (Psa. 13:3).
"For this cause many are weak and sickly among you, and many sleep [are
dead]" (ICor.. 11:30).
"Behold, I show you a mystery; We shall not all sleep ... the dead shall be
raised..." ( I Cor. 15:51-52).
"...the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep" (I Thes.
4:14).
"...My daughter is even now dead ... the maid is not dead, but sleepeth."
(Mat. 9:18 & 24).
"For David, after he had served his own generation by the will of God, fell
on sleep and was laid unto his fathers, and saw corruption." (Acts 13:36).
It is said even of our own Lord:
"But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruit of them
that slept" (I Cor. 15:20), etc., etc.
Now I believe all of these Scriptures. Either Abraham is dead, buried and
sleeping with his fathers, just as Moses, David, etc., or these Scriptures can’t
be trusted.
By the way, where do we read of "heaven" in this parable? There is not the
slightest hint of the word heaven in this parable! Abraham’s "bosom" is no more
heaven than my bosom is heaven.
Interestingly, not only did all these patriarchs go to sleep, but they went
to sleep with their fathers, and many of their fathers were idolaters!
So there we have a dozen Scriptures stating that God likens death to sleep.
In what way is being conscious and tortured in the flames of Hell analogous to
"sleep?" God says death is "sleep." Now in what way is conscious torture in Hell
fire analogous to "sleep?" In what way is a blissful life in Heaven analogous to
"sleep?" Well, of course, it’s not analogous at all. Yet God plainly says, many
times, that death is "sleep" God awakens dead people out of sleep.
Therefore, the teaching that the dead Rich man and dead Lazarus are not
asleep is wrong and unscriptural. It is only in the figurative language of a
parable can it be said to be different.
Let me give you a Scripture that will "lay to rest" (pun intended) this issue
once and for all. What happens after one dies:
"If a man die, shall he live again? All the days of my appointed time will I
wait, till my change comes. Thou shalt call, and I will answer thee; thou wilt
have a desire to the work of thine hands." (Job 14:14-15).
When a person dies, he must: WAIT ... FOR APPOINTED TIME ... TILL CHANGE
COMES ... GOD CALLS ... WE LIVE AGAIN...
When Jesus taught this parable there were no Greek Scriptures. So when this
"rich man died" he went to Sheol [Heb. the unseen or imperceptible, the abode of
the dead, the grave] It’s the same sheol that Christ’s soul went to at death:
Psalm 16:10--"For Thou will not leave my soul in the unseen [Sheol]."
This verse is quoted in the New Testament Greek:
Acts 2:27--"For Thou wilt not be forsaking my soul in the unseen [Gk.
Hades]."
Sheol and Hades are synonymous. The Old Testament says Christ’s soul went to
"Sheol," the New says His soul went to "Hades."
We know that Christ was the "firstfruit" of them that slept (I Cor. 15:20,
42, 43, 52, 53, 55, I Thes. 4:16-18). The "dead in Christ" are now "ASLEEP"
according to the Scriptures.
WHERE DID CHRIST GO WHEN HE DIED?
Read I Cor. 15 again.
"Christ died for our sins," "He was buried," "He rose again the third day."
All right, let’s be Scripturally exact.
SPIRIT: When Christ "died," where did His "spirit" go? Scripture -- Luke
23:46: "Father, into thy hands am I committing My spirit."
Comment: Do other
Scriptures verify this truth that at death man's spirit returns to God Who gave
it? Yes.
"Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was; and the
spirit shall return to the God Who gave it" (Ecc. 12:7).
BODY: Where did
Christ's "body" go at death? Matt. 27:59-60:
"And when Joseph had
taken the body, he wrapped it in a clean linen cloth, and laid it in his own new
tomb ... "
Comment: Do other Scriptures verify this truth that dead bodies
are normally buried or entombed? Yes.
" ... David, that he is both
dead and buried, and his sepulchre is with us unto this day." (Acts 2:29)
Do dead bodies normally begin to decay and stink after a few days?
Yes.
"Martha ... Lord, by this time he stinketh: for he hath been dead
four days." (John 11:39).
Would Christ's body have started to decay
had not God miraculously prevented it? Yes.
" ... nor was His flesh
acquainted with decay." (Acts 2:3).
Was Christ (Himself) said to be
where His body was? Yes.
"They have taken away the Lord out of
the sepulchre ... " (Acts 20:2).
Comment:
Do other Scriptures
verify this truth that the "person" or "personality" if you will, or whatever
you want the pronoun "He" to represent, is where the body is? Yes.
"
... David ... he is buried ... " (Acts 2:29) It's "his spirit" and "his soul"
but it's "he" that is said to be buried with the body.
It was "The Son
of man" who was entombed in the earth (Mat. 12:40 & I Cor. 15:3-5). "Christ
[he] died ... [he] was buried ... [he] rose again ...
SOUL:
When
Christ died, where did His soul go? "For Thou wilt not be forsaking my soul in
the unseen [hades]" ( Acts 2:27).
Comment:
Do other
Scriptures verify this truth that at death the soul goes to the unseen (hades)?
Yes. Psa. 49:15 " ... redeem my soul from the power of the grave [Heb.
sheol]."
Now, back to the parable:
NOT ALL PAIN IS PHYSICAL
"...being in torments..."
What are these "torments" that the Rich man is experiencing? Is it physical
pain from having his skin burned off of his body by real flames of fire? What a
marvelous thing it is that we can have access to the Hebrew and Greek
manuscripts from which our modern language bibles have been translated. We can
check every word that has been translated into our English bibles. And now, dear
readers, we shall do just that.
In verse 23 we have the word "torments" In verses 24 and 25 we have the word
"tormented." These three words are not translated from the same Greek word,
however. And there is a great reason why. This one point alone will demolish any
such theory that this Rich man is actually and literally having his flesh burned
by real fire.
Let us now see if Jesus gives us any indication whether or not this Rich man
will ever come out of this place of torments and what these torments really
are:
The Greek word translated "torments" in verse 23 is basanos.
From Friberg’s Analytical Lexicon of the Greek New Testament, we are told
that basanois which is a form of the noun basanos, means, "strictly, a
touchstone for testing the genuineness of metals by rubbing against it..."
In secular Greek literature this word (basanois) was used figuratively to
extract information from a person by torture or punishment.
From the Greek-English Keyword Concordance we read this, torment, literally a
touchstone, used to test metals for alloys, [and] then the examination of
persons by torture (Page 307).
Though the Rich man may, indeed, be suffering discomfort or pain, it is not
from fire burning his flesh, but rather from being tested and proved through
chastisement. .
It is an interesting fact of Scripture that except for Paul "punishing" the
church, there is only ONE SCRIPTURE in the whole new testament that uses the
word "punishment." All others use the word "chastisement" which always carries
the connotation of correction and bringing things back to what is right again.
Chastisement by it’s very definition CANNOT be eternal. There is always a
purpose and goal in mind with the use of the word chastise.
In Verses 24 and 25 we will likewise see that the word translated "tormented"
does by no means carry a meaning of being physical pained or physically
tortured.
"...he is seeing Abraham from afar..."
Impossible. The man is enveloped in "flames" and can clearly identify two
personalities from "afar" across a great chasm? Not with human eyes.
"And he shouting, said..."
Impossible. Proof: Psalm 31:17--"...let the wicked be ashamed, and let them
be silent in the grave [Heb. SHEOL]. There it is! There is no talking and no
shouting in sheol. If anyone can literally "shout" in hades or sheol they make
God a liar.
"...send Lazarus that he should be dipping the tip of his finger in water and
cooling my tongue..."
Impossible. If someone were in a literal fire they would not be asking for a
drop of water for their tongue. Their skin and eyes would be in much greater
pain than their tongue! The tongue is at least somewhat protected in the mouth
cavity. Now if anyone is so silly as to debate me on this issue, let them jump
into a fire and see for themselves which burns most--the eyes and skin or the
tongue? Besides a drop on the tip of one’s finger would be less than useless. It
would have no effect. None. It's a parable. This language is figurative.
"...I am tormented [pained] in this flame."
Impossible. Yes, it is possible to be "tormented [pained] in flame," however,
it is impossible to calmly talk about it while it is happening! If his body were
human so as to have a nervous system and feel pain, then of necessity that same
body would burn up. It is the destruction of the skin cells that is causing the
pain. Within seconds the skin no longer pains (it’s dead). Now it is the deeper
flesh that pains. But by then the man would pass out and soon die. I mean
really, these are things that people completely unversed in the Scriptures
understand. It is not literal fire that is causing him this pain or torment.
What kind of "torment" is God talking about in this parable? Is this physical
pain from the flames burning his flesh as is taught in Christendom? Not at all!
Note that he does not say "flames," but rather "flame," singular! The Greek word
translated "tormented" in verses 24 and 25 is a totally different Greek word
than is used for "torments" in verse 23. The Greek word here is odunao and it
means to be sorrowful or pained, but not physically, but rather EMOTIONALLY! We
can easily see how the Holy Spirit of God used this word in Scripture. Adunao is
used only two other times in all Scripture and both times it has absolutely
nothing to do with physical torture, but rather with emotional sorrow or pain.
"And when they saw Him, they were amazed: and His mother said unto Him, Son,
why hast thou thus dealt with us? Behold, thy father and I have sought thee
sorrowing [Greek: adunao, same word translated "tormented" in Luke 16:24 &
25]" (Luke 2:48).
"Sorrowing [Greek: adunao, same word translated "tormented" in Luke 16:24
& 25], most of all for the words which he spoke, that they should see his
face no more. And they accompanied him into the ship" (Acts 20:38).
Now then, does anyone believe that they were physically tortured when Paul
departed? Does anyone believe the parents of Jesus were physical tortured in
their flesh while they searched for Jesus?
Had the KJV translators been consistent they should have translated Luke
16:24 & 25 the same way. He was emotionally "pained" or "sorrowed" and not
physically tormented or tortured! The same word cannot mean both "emotionally
sorrowed" and "physically tortured."
The Rich man was emotionally pained or sorrowed by the flame (the testing and
trials), not tortured, and that’s why, as we shall see later, he wanted a drop
[a symbolic drop of water] for his tongue and not a barrel of water to cool his
body. Let’s not be guilty of adding to the Rich man’s woes.
"Now Abraham said, Child, be reminded that you got your good thing in your
life, and Lzarus likewise evil things."
If this Rich man is really being pictured literally in a hellhole of eternal
torture, why then didn’t Abraham say to him something like this: "Scoundrel, be
reminded that you were a liar, cheat, robber, blasphemer, drunkard, murderer,
ungodly, unholy, unrepentant, incorrigible, piece of slime in your life,so burn
in Hell for ever." But no, the Rich man is accused of no such things.
Most governments do not sentence people to cruel and unusual punishment for
minor crimes. Christian theologians would sentence this Rich man to all eternity
in Hell fire and I don’t see where according to what this parable "literally
says" he did anything bad. He lived a life of "good things!" In the literal
language of this parable no sin is attributed to him. Not ONE! The rich man got
good things, and for that we are told he will have his flesh barbecued with real
fire in an eternal hellhole of insane torture? Lazarus got evil things, and for
that we are told he will spend eternity in Heaven? Is anyone in this parable
said to be literally good or bad?
THE RICH MAN
LAZARUS
By all appearances and
descriptions, the Rich man was an educated, well-dressed, well-groomed and
well-mannered person who gave food to the poor, fed the stray dogs, had a merry
heart and cheerful disposition, and loved his family. By all appearances
and descriptions, Lazarus was poor, diseased, probably uneducated, poorly
dressed, poorly groomed, hungry, a homeless person in the streets.
We
know that God blessed him, because he "received GOOD" And Jas. 1:17 says, "Every
good gift ... comes down from the Father."
He was obviously not blessed
of God. According to TBN this man just didn't have faith to be healed. And
wasn't blessed because he didn't obey God. He wasn't very thankful. He never did
say: "Oh, by the way, Mr. Rich man, Thank you for all the food you always gave
me," Did he?
And notice carefully what this parable does not
say:
It doesn't say Lazarus was good, kind, faithful, righteous, or
loved God.
It doesn't say that he was an evil man, ever hurt anyone, stole,
murdered, cursed God, didn't believe in God, or ever did anything bad. It says
nothing negative about the Rich man. In fact, it really doesn’t say one, single,
positive, anything about him what--so--ever!
So we are to take this parable literally? As an historical fact? Okay
then, what does it "literally" say? Not what we might think it means but what it
actually SAYS:
If one is healthy, happy, prosperous, gives to the poor, is respectful of
authority, loves his family, is concerned for the welfare of others and is
enormously blessed of God, and has a life of "good" things, he will go to Hades
and be tormented in flames of fire without water and without mercy.
If one is poor, diseased, homeless, a beggar, shows no thanks for even the
little he does receive, has not the faith to be healed, and is not blessed of
God, but only has a life of evil things, he will go to Abraham’s bosom where he
is consoled and comforted in his distress [Gk: parakaleo].
Quite frankly neither one is a pretty picture. That’s because this is
figurative and symbolic language, so of course it doesn’t make sense literally!
It’s a parable.
Here then is the bottom line of the Christian interpretation of this
parable:
Live a life of good things now, blessed of God, and you’ll burn in the flames
of Hell forever.
Live a life of evil things now, cursed of God, and you’ll live forever in
Heaven.
Doesn’t make much sense when we look at it literally, does it? You know, if
this parable is literal, Abraham is on the wrong side! Abraham possessed many
more of the qualities of the rich man than he did of Lazarus (not actually, but
if we take this parable literally)! Abraham was very rich, loved his family, was
concerned for the welfare of others, provided for his servants, was respectful
of authority (especially of God), was tremendously blessed of God and had a life
of many good things.
According to the majority of Christendom’s interpretation of this story,
Abraham should be in Hell!
Actually Abraham is in hades (sheol), as are all the "fathers." And all the
dead ungodly people are there as well. They don’t know it, however. It’s very
quiet in hades, no thoughts, no praise, no anything--it’s "imperceptible" and
"unseen."
Back to the parable:
"Yet now here he is being consoled, yet you are in pain [adunaoI]."
If Lazarus is in heaven, where are all the saints? Where is there a reward?
Where is Christ? Where is the happiness and joy?
Lazarus is "consoled." This word in Greek is used in conjunction with someone
who is "in distress." So Lazarus is being "consoled in his distress." Doesn’t
sound like much of a Heaven to me. And the rich man is "in pain." Why? It
doesn’t say he did anything wrong, or evil, so why is he in pain? Who judged
him? When? For what?
DOES GOD SENTENCE BEFORE HE JUDGES?
When theologians insist that this is a literal story, they place a huge
blotch on the character of God! According to the Christian interpretation, this
man is spending eternity in Hell fire, but has never had his day in court. He
has been sentenced without being judged! This man could not have been judged,
because when our Lord spoke this parable, "The Judgment" was yet future.
"Verily, I am saying to you, More tolerable will it be for the land of Sodom
and the land of Gomorrah in that DAY OF JUDGING than for that city." (Matt.
10:15)
Now I never was good at grammar, but I don’t think "will be" is in the "past
tense," is it? And again,
"Men, Ninevites, will be rising in the judging with this generation and will
be condemning it..." (Mat. 12:41)
The "evil" men of Sodom have not yet been judged. The "righteous" men of
Nineveh have not yet risen or been judged. What are we to do? Get the scissors
out and clip more verses from the Bible so that theologians can be at liberty to
turn a parable into an historical event?
Besides, judging has to do with doing right or setting things right.
Punishment is meted out according to the degree of the crime. Punishment is
never eternal. And how does eternal torture in Hell fire equate to the
punishment for "having good things in your life?"
I have heard theologians say, "No, he’s in Hell for rejecting Christ’s
sacrifice." But it doesn’t say that. And it is the theologians that demand that
this parable be taken literally. Honestly, it doesn’t literally say anything
about rejecting Christ’s sacrifice, does it?
Well, okay, let’s look at that premise anyway. I heard a world famous
evangelist say regarding the Rich man in this parable, "You go to Hell for
rejecting Christ’s sacrifice." But, he does err not knowing the Scriptures or
history! Not only didn’t the rich man literally reject Christ’s sacrifice, but
it was literally impossible for him to literally do so.
When Christ taught this parable (Luke 16) HE WAS NOT AS YET SACRIFICED (Luke
23)! So how, pray tell, could the Rich man have "rejected a sacrifice" Who had
not yet even been sacrificed?
It is an amazing thing to hear world famous evangelists with audacity teach
millions of people that our Merciful God has already sent millions of fellow
human beings to an eternal burning hell to suffer indescribably in torturous
agony, and horrifying pain without mercy, all without a "hearing" or "trial" or
"just judgment" and for rejecting a Sacrifice Who had not yet even been
sacrificed?
MILLIONS OF GALLONS OF WATER IN HELL
"And in all this, between us and you a great chasm has been established, so
that those wanting to cross hence to you may not be able, nor yet those thence
may be ferrying to us."
Impossible. "Thus also is the resurrection of the dead ... It is sown a
soulish body; it is roused a spiritual body" (I Cor. 15:42 & 44). If Lazarus
has a spiritual body in heaven, how can a gulf or chasm keep such a spiritual
being from crossing it?
Notice this phrase, "...those wanting to cross hence to you..." What? Do you
think that is translated correctly? I assure you it is translated correctly. So
why, oh why, would anyone in Heaven be "WANTING" TO GO TO HELL? Isn’t it is time
that we concede that this is indeed a parable!
The last part of verse 26 should read as follows: "Nor yet those thence may
be ferrying to us."
King James uses "pass" twice in this verse. They are different words,
however. The first "pass" is [Gk. diabaino = THROUGH-STEP or cross]. But the
second "pass" is [Gk: .Diaperao = THROUGH-OTHER-SIDE, and is used of passage
over WATER] hence, "ferrying."
Here is water. Since there is water separating Lazarus from the rich man in
this chasm, why doesn’t the rich man just jump into the water? And the word
"ferrying" also presupposes "ferry boats." Even if the Rich man can’t swim it
would be better to drown than burn.
DID THE RICH MAN EVEN KNOW WHO MOSES WAS?
"Yet Abraham is saying to him, ‘They have Moses and the prophets. Let them
hear them!’"
Impossible. The rich man recognized Abraham on sight. Even called him
"Father." How could someone who knows Abraham "...hear Moses...?" Moses didn’t
live until hundreds of years after Abraham? How could the rich man’s "brothers"
hear Moses? Moses didn’t live until far into their future?
You see these are just some of the dozens of problems and contradictions we
face when someone insists that this parable be taken literally!
And where in Moses and the Prophets does it warn that if one is rich and
blessed of God that when he dies he will go to some eternal hellhole of fire and
torture? Or that a poor man cursed of God will go to an eternal heaven of bliss?
Now I have a few concordances, but I can’t find any such verse. If this parable
is literal, then somewhere in Moses and the Prophets it must warn of such a fate
for being rich and also promise a heaven of bliss if one is sickly and poverty
stricken. But where is there such a teaching in Moses and the prophets? There is
no such teaching in Moses and the prophets. This is a parable.
"No, father Abraham, but if someone should be going to them from the dead,
they will be repenting."
Impossible. If Lazarus isn’t dead. if he’s alive in heaven, why didn’t the
rich man say, "No ,father Abraham, but if someone should be going to them from
HEAVEN, they will be repenting?" How could Lazarus, who is alive, go "...to them
from the dead?"
"...neither will they be persuaded if someone should be rising from among the
dead."
The rich man is now persuaded. Why wouldn’t they also be persuaded? Because
it will take more than Moses and the Prophets and more than one returning from
the dead to persuade them.
DECLARE UNTO US THE PARABLE ...
I heard Matt Crouch say on international television that since the Jews were
prophesied to not understand, Christ spoke in parables so that this prophecy
would be apparently voided and they would understand. The Scriptures show just
the opposite:
"Declare unto us the parable..." (Mat. 13:36)
"declare unto us this parable" (Mat. 15:15)
"...the twelve asked of Him the parable" (Mk. 4:10)
"Know ye not this parable" (Mk. 4:13)
"...His disciples asked Him concerning the parable" (Mk. 7:17)
"And His disciples asked Him saying, what might this parable be?" (Lk.
8:9)
"Now the parable is this: The seed is..." (Lk. 8:11).
This is so simple a child can understand it. It wasn’t Christ’s explanations
that none understood, it was his "parables" that none understood.
The multitudes did not understand Christ’s parables:
"This parable spake Jesus unto them; but they understood NOT what things they
were which He spake unto them." (Jn 10:6)
If, as Matt Crouch suggests, Christ taught in parables so that the the masses
would understand, then the Scriptures themselves would prove that He failed
utterly.
Christ’s own disciples did not understanding His parables when he spoke them
anymore than the multitudes did!
"Therefore speak I to them in parables; because they seeing see not; and
hearing they hear not, neither do they understand" (Mat. 13:13)
"Hear ye therefore the parable of the sower" (Ver. 18)
"Then answered Peter and said unto him, DECLARE UNTO US this parable. And
Jesus said, ‘Are ye also [like the multitudes] yet without understanding?’"
(Mat. 15:15-16)
"And he said unto them, Know ye not this parable? and how then will ye know
all parables?" (Mk. 4:13)
Christ had to explain all the parables to them!
"And with many such parables spake he the word ... but without a parable
SPAKE HE NOT: and when they were ALONE, He expounded all things to His
disciples" (Mk. 4:33-34)!
It is interesting what Christ said here. If his disciples didn’t understand
"this" parable, "how then will ye know "all" parables?" There is a continuity
among most of the parables. They basically speak of the same peoples and the
same events.
The disciples weren’t so foolish, however, as to believe that this parable
was to be taken literally, anymore than they believed any of the parables were
to be taken literally! That’s why our Lord explained all the parables to them in
private. Read it and believe.
One can only take this parable literally at the expense of contradicting
hundreds of other plain Scriptures! I have presented more than ample Scriptural
proof that this is a parable and that it cannot be taken "literally!"
Like most parables, it was prophecy not history! If one persists in thinking
this parable can be understood completely "literally" in contradiction of
hundreds of plain Scriptures of facts to the contrary, I don’t know what else I
can say. Maybe the "Flat Earth Society" of Great Britain is still accepting new
memberships.
Before I explain this parable, please notice something. The condition the
Rich man now finds himself in was not something he had anticipated in "life."
Abraham making reference to Moses and the Prophets, presupposes that the Rich
man was familiar with these writings. However, nothing in these writings gives
any warning of going to a "fiery place of torment" immediately upon death. Nor
does the parable state that this condition of the Rich man [in torment] and
Lazarus [consoled in his distress] is permanent or endless. Furthermore, being
"not persuaded" by either "Moses and the Prophets" or "someone rising from the
dead" does NOT preclude that there is nothing that ever will persuade them in
the future! That is false opinion, not Scripture.
The truth is, there are many, many Scriptures that do tell us when and what
actually will persuade the "Rich man," "his brothers," "all mankind," and "every
celestial being" in the entirety of the universe!
It is that truth of the salvation of ALL that IS the gospel, the "Good News."
God is operating to bring all to salvation, (Eph. 1:10-11, Phil. 2:10, I Tim.
2:4-6, 4:10) "These things command and teach" (Ver. 11).
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
THE PARABLE OF LAZARUS AND THE RICH MAN
(A Scriptural explanation)
Before I go into the explanation of Lazarus and the Rich man, I feel a
certain amount of background information is essential.
As most explanations and commentaries on this parable are extremely short
(even by those who do understand it’s proper setting), much of this material is
my own research and, therefore, certainly could be better refined than I am
presenting it. I can see now that one could easily write a sizable book in
expounding this parable. Here, however, is sufficient evidence to set us on the
right track of understanding this parable. The accepted Christian interpretation
of this par- able is unscriptural and heresy of the darkest kind!
"Jesus came unto His own, and His own received Him Not. (Jn. 1:11)
Who were these people, "His own?" Many would say, the Jews. And they are
right, but who are the "Jews?" Paul was of the Tribe of Benjamin, yet he called
himself "a Jew." How can this be? Today, for example, we have Hebrew University
in Jerusalem, in the ancient land of Judea, in the nation of Israel, and it’s
occupants call themselves Jews. Where did all these names come from?
Biblically speaking there are two broad categories of people in the
world--The Children of Israel and the Other nations. Later this designation was
shortened to "The Jews and The Gentiles."
HEBREWS, ISRAELITES, AND JEWS
It all began with Eber [Heber] who was the forefather of all Hebrews
(Gen.10:21). Abraham [Abram] was of this lineage and so is an "Hebrew." There
were other lines of Hebrews also. God changed Abram’s name to Abraham signifying
that he would become a "Father of Many Nations" (Gen. 16:7-11). Abraham had a
son Isaac, and Isaac had two sons, Esau and Jacob.
God changed Jacob’s name to "Israel" (Gen.. 32:28). And Israel had twelve
sons: Reuben, Simeon, Levi, Judah, Dan, Napthali, Gad, Asher, Issachar, Zebulun,
Joseph, and Benjamin (Gen.. 35:23-16), who then became known as "The Children of
Israel."
The "Children of Israel" became God’s "chosen" people: "For thou art an holy
people unto the Lord thy God: the Lord thy God hath chosen thee to be a special
people unto Himself, above all peoples that are upon the face of the earth"
(Deut. 7:6).
God’s relationship with Israel was so close that He married them: "For thy
Maker is thine husband; the Lord of hosts is His name; and thy Redeemer the Holy
One of Israel; The God of the whole earth shall He be called" (Isa. 54:5).
The Tribe of Judah early on was chosen of God to lead in battle (Jg. 1:2).
The various Tribes warred against each other during a period of civil wars. They
finally became united under two powers, Judah and Israel. David was anointed
King of Judah (II Sam. 2:4) and then later King over Israel (II Sam. 5:3).
In I Kg. 12:19-21 Judah (with the tribe of Benjamin) is again at war with
Israel. Israel was then known as the "Ten Tribes." Many of the Priests and
Levites left Israel and went to Jeru- salem under Judah (II Chron. 11:13).
And so the Kingdom of Israel (with its capital at Samaria), and the Kingdom
of Judah (with it’s Capital at Jerusalem) were separate nations for several
centuries.
Eventually, Israel was destroyed and driven into captivity by the Assyrians
(II Kg. 18:11) and later Judah was destroyed and driven into captivity by
Babylon (Jer. 30:9).
Nehemiah comes to power and returns eventually to Jerusalem to rebuild it,
and takes Priests and Levites with him (Neh. 2:1-8). Ezra also returns to
Jerusalem with a large company of Jews (Ezra 7:8).
"Even all the Jews returned out of all places whither they were driven..."
(Jer. 40:11-12)
I doubt that many in Judea and Jerusalem even knew for sure which Tribes they
came from by the time of our Lord’s ministry.
To show how dominant Judah was in absorbing all these Tribes and passing on
his name to them, look at Judges 17:7:
"And there was a young man out of Bethlehem-judah of the family of Judah, who
was a Levite..."
He was a Levite who was considered Juhah’s family.
The Priests, of course, did have to know their lineage or they would not be
qualified for the Priesthood. Paul was an extremely well-educated man and
therefore did know his lineage. So let’s see if this makes sense now. With all
these things in mind, maybe we can better understand how these different names
are used and applied to even the same person.
Paul, for example, was an Hebrew (Phil. 3:5) through Abraham (Rom. 11:1), and
through Isaac, was an Israelite through Israel (Rom. 11:1), was a Benjamite
through the Tribe of Benjamin (Rom. 11:1), from Tarsus of Cilicia (Acts 21:39),
was educated in Jerusalem, was trained a Pharisee, under Gamaliel, spoke Hebrew
& Greek (Acts 22:2-3), was also a Roman (Acts 16:37), and also calls himself
A JEW (Acts 21:39).
So here’s what happened. In the Old Testament all Jews were Israelites, but
not all Israelites were Jews. Like all Floridians are Americans, but not all
Americans are Floridians. But, because Judah was always the dominant Tribe and
Israel was once again gathered in Judea under Judah’s leadership, and because
many of the individual Tribes became so mixed in inter- tribal and interracial
marriage, many became designated as "Jews" in the New Testament. Even today,
many known "Jews" may really be "Danites" or "Reubenites" etc. Many thinking
themselves Gentiles could really be descendants of Israelites or Jews or other
lines of Hebrews and not even know it..
I always considered myself a "Gentile" until a recent trip to Germany and
Amsterdam, where I talked to different people about the early immigrants to
America. My last name was "Schmidt" two hundred years ago, but when I mentioned
other family names in my genealogy they told me: "That’s Jewish, that’s Jewish,
etc.," My father was David, his father was Charles, his father was Thomas, his
father was Manuel, his father was Isaac, his father was Abraham, and his father
was Jacob. They told me that "true Germans" almost never named their children
with Hebrew names. So maybe I’m a "Jew." Only God knows for sure.
But the point I want to make is that at the time of our Lord, Judah (the
Jews) dominated to the extent that all non-Gentiles were referred to as Jews,
although "Israel" as their historical origin was still used. The name "Israel"
is used some 120 times in the N.T., while "Jews" is used some 360 times. So they
really are used interchangeably. They are all Israelites, but Judah has always
dominated. It will be important to keep these things in mind as we discuss this
parable.
WHY PARABLES?
When one looks at all the parables, as they are "literally" written they
really are of little spiritual value, and often are physiological
impossibilities, or don’t tell us things we didn’t already know.
Look at the parable of the tares: A man sews good seed. An enemy sews tares.
A servant suggests they pull out the tares. The owner suggests that would pull
out the good wheat as well.. So he says to wait till harvest and then separate
the wheat from the tares, (Mat. 13:24-30). None of the parables are to be
understood in their literal language. Some, like Lazarus and the Rich man, are
physiological impossibilities if taken literally.
Interestingly, this parable of the tares can be taken literally. That is it
makes sense even in its literal language, and does not contradict other
Scriptures.
However, it was not meant to be taken literally, and if we take this parable
"literally," what do we learn? Quite frankly, not much. Are you suggesting that
Christ wasted His time giving little household hints and horticultural tips?
Like, how to weed your garden? Come on.
When Christ explains this parable to His disciples, it takes on enormous
meaning never even suggested in the "literal" story. Parables are in some ways
like fine poetry. Marvelous word pictures having giant spiritual applications
and ramifications can be presented with very few words, AND, it is God’s purpose
to conceal many of the truths of His Kingdom except to those to whom it is given
to understand.
See the spiritual application of Matt. 14:37-43:
The "sower" is none less than the Son of man.
The "field" is the world.
The "good seed" are the children of the Kingdom of God.
The "tares" are the children of the wicked one (Satan).
The "harvest" is the end of the age.
Now that’s some pretty heavy stuff! This is no horticultural tip for would be
farmers. I have already shown how utterly ludicrous it is to try and take
Lararus and the Rich man literally, not to mention totally unscriptural..
Christ is not telling us about some "one" individual rich man and some "one"
insignificant beggar in the street. Look at that parable of the "tares" again.
Literally it is nothing. But what it represents in figurative and symbolic
language is awesome. It has to do with the operations of God, Satan, millions of
people and the very end of this age.
Through symbolism and personification, God often uses one some thing or
person to represent many or even multitudes and whole nations of people:
"This image’s head was of fine gold...Thou, O king, art a king of
kings...THOU ART this head of gold" (Dan. 2:32, 37, 38)
The "image" represented King Nebuchadnezzar, but the "King" represented all
Babylon and all the nations and kingdoms that he conquered.
"And this is the blessing of Judah: and he said, Hear, Lord, the voice of
Judah..." (Deut. 33:7)
This was not "literally" the voice of the one man, "Judah," but of his
Descendants. Judah had "literally" died hundreds of years earlier.
"And Judah said unto Simeon his brother ... and they slew of them in Bezek
ten thousand men." (Judges 1:3-4)
Judah was dead, Simeon was dead, and two individuals could hardly "slay ten
thousand men!" Clearly, Judah represents the children of Judah or as they are
called, Jews. Remember this, this is important!
All of the parables have huge consequences. They depict giant events to come
on this world. They deal with the future of millions and billions--not just a
beggar in the street somewhere. Let’s not cheapen or demean this parable.
There is a continuity running through most of the parables. Virtually all of
the parables deal with punishments and rewards on the same people at the same
event. Although the meaning of His parables were hidden, on one occasion Christ
did identify Himself in a parable. Correctly translated thus:
"Undoubtedly you will be declaring to me this parable: ‘Physician cure your
self’" (Concordant Literal New Testament).
And on one occasion the Pharisees did realize that Christ was talking about
them even if they didn’t understand the parable completely:
"And the chief priests and the scribes the same hour sought to lay hands on
Him; and they feared the people: for they perceived that He had spoken this
parable against them" (Luke 20:19)!
It is also important to note that a few verses before this parable it is
stated that Christ was giving these parables partly because the Pharisees were
"...inherently fond of money" (Lk. 16:14).
But in the parable of "Lazarus and the Rich man," surely they understood who
it was that Christ was speaking of. In the parable of the "tares" no one could
even guess who or what the "tares" represented without explanation. But in
"Lazarus and the rich man" there are more hints and more identifiable symbols
and facts given than in any other parable in the Gospels.
The Pharisees may have been hypocrites, but they, nonetheless, were highly
educated and familiar with the Hebrew Scriptures. They knew what "Purple and
Fine Linen" symbolized. The name "Lazarus" wouldn’t necessarily have meant too
much to them (it was a common name) until we find him "in the bosom of Abraham."
Now they knew for sure which Lazarus our Lord was making reference to. And when
they were told that the rich man had "Moses and the Prophets" there was little
doubt left. And this rich man had "five brothers." That clinched it. Surely they
knew for certain who these men are.
And although they probably hadn’t a clue as to the real meaning of the
parable, there was no doubt that our Lord did not portray the rich man in a very
favorable light.
THE PARABLE
"There was a certain rich man..." Authorized Version
"Now a certain man was rich..." Concordant Literal New Testament
I am not convinced that the first and second verses of this parable should
not be a question. As in, "WHO was a rich man...? And, "WHO was a beggar named
Lazarus. . ."
The Greek word translated "certain" is ti (neuter), tis (mas. and fem.)
generally has the meaning of "any." However, the indefinite pronoun "any," used
freely, especially in questions, where English uses ‘who,’ ‘whose,’ ‘which,’
‘what,’ ‘why,’ or with negatives, ‘(any)one’, though, when possible, we seek to
preserve its indefiniteness by rendering it ‘any,’ ‘some,’ or ‘certain.’"
Greek-English Keyword Concordance p. 15.
So certainly we can render this word in this particular passage as "certain."
That is if we use Webster’s Third definition of "certain" which means "3. not
named or described, though perhaps known." However, if we use Webster’s First
definition of "certain" it destroys this "questionable" character of the word:
"1. Without any doubt or question; sure; positive."
Christ asked: "Who [tis] touched my clothes?" (Mk. 5:30). Certainly, the
answer couldn’t be "ANY." And, likewise, Christ asks "Whose [ti] is this image
and the inscription?" (Matt. 22:20). Again, the answer certainly could not be
"any image," or "a certain image." It was definitely "Caesar’s" image. Let’s
face it, showing someone a famous "image" and then asking "who" it is, is a
pretty big clue.
Now this verse is particularly interesting, because everyone or anyone would
have known "whose" image was on the coin, yet Christ merely asked the "question"
to confirm that fact! And in the same way I believe Christ asked "who" was this
rich man and "who" was this poor man Lazarus, (with all the accompanying clues
and symbols) to merely confirm in their minds that they surely already knew who
these two personages were!
I firmly believe that the "who" of this parable is just as important or even
more important than the "what" of the parable. Without knowing "who" is spoken
of, the "what" makes almost no sense at all! The Pharisees undoubtedly did not
understand the prophetic fulfillment of this parable any more than they did any
of the other parables. However, just as in Luke 20 the Pharisees knew Christ was
speaking about them, I believe they also knew full well the identity of this
rich man and Lazarus .
Although I know of no translation that does translate this verse into a
question, I nonetheless, do not at present believe it would violate any rules if
it were translated a question. Hey, I’m a roofer not a scholar.
"Now who was a rich man...?"
"Now who was a poor man named Lazarus, who had been cast at his gate...?
Yes, "Who?" That is the question.
There were lots of "rich men" and lots of "poor beggars" and Lazarus was a
common name. But "who" was this rich man and "who" was this particular Lazarus,
that’s the question! It is not necessary, however, to the explanation of the
parable whether it should have a question mark or not. I just believe it lends
itself to a question as do the other scriptures where "who?" is used.
THE RICH MAN IDENTIFIED
There is only one man who Scripturally fits all the descriptions of the "rich
man" in this parable. Only one person who "personifies" all of the symbols and
identifying clues given of this rich man. And that man is:
"JUDAH !"
But not just Judah as an historical individual, but collectively. All Israel
under the headship of Judah, the Jews. And the Jews were "rich."
Beginning back in Gen. 15:14 God prophesied that Abraham’s descendants were
to be very rich. "And also that nation, whom they shall serve, will I judge: and
afterward shall they come out with great substance."
"Therefore the Lord stablished the kingdom in his hand and all Judah brought
to Jehoshaphat presents; and he had riches and honour in abundance" (II Chron.
17:5)
"...and he built in Judah castles, and cities of store" (Ver. 12)
Jerusalem had a standing army of 860,000 men! (II Chron. 17:13-18). And that
didn’t even include the fortified cities in Judah. (Ver. 19)
Hezekiah (King of Judah):
"...had exceeding much riches and honour; and he made himself treasures for
silver, and for gold, and for precious stones...all manner of pleasant jewels;
storehouses also for the increase of corn, and wine, and oil, and stalls for all
manner of beasts ... he provided him cities, possessions of flocks and herds in
abundance; for God had given him substance very much" (II Ch 32:27-29.
So yes, Judah was rich. And who to this day are universally known for having
money and being successful in the financial world? The Jews. However, these were
just some of Judah’s material possessions. Judah was rich in another way--very
rich. Judah possessed something far more valuable than all of these possessions.
God bestowed on Judah a treasure greater than any other on the face of the
earth, in the history of the world.
"What, then is the prerogative of the Jew, or what the benefit of
circumcision? Much in every manner... For first, indeed, that they were
entrusted with the oracles of God" (Rom. 3:1-2).
Prerogative is translated from [Gk. perisson’ EXCESS, SUPERABUNDANTLY] Who
has a diamond collection, an art collection, a string of corporations, or fifty
Swiss Bank accounts that could begin to approach the value of the oracles of
God?
"For what nation is there so great, who hath God so nigh unto them, as the
Lord our God is in all things..." (Deu. 4:7).
"He sheweth His word unto Jacob, his statutes and His judgment unto Israel"
(Psa. 147:19)
"Ye worship ye know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of
the Jews" (Jn 4:22)
So not only was Judah rich materially, but God bestowed on Judah His very
word, and through Judah the very salvation of the world. Who but Judah possessed
such wealth?
"...and he dressed in purple..."
Imagine Christ asking His disciples: "Oh, by the way, would you fellows be
interested in knowing what color clothing this Rich man was wearing just before
he went to Hell?" Ridiculous nonsense!
But what is nonsense in the literal is the symbolic sign of this man’s real
identity!
Purple is: "A color used in garments of a bluish red, by a dye obtained from
a shell fish, purpura. It denotes rank of royalty" (Greek-English Keyword
Concordance p. 236).
Purple was worn by Kings (Judges 8:26). Even the Caesars of Rome wore Purple
as a symbol of their royalty.
And who was to carry the royal line in Israel?... Judah.
"The scepter [a symbol of rulership and power] shall not depart from Judah,
now a lawgiver from between his feet, until Shiloh come..." (Gen. 49:10).
David was of the Tribe of Judah and was anointed King of Judah. Our Lord was
of the line of Judah (Mat. 1:2), and will be not only King of Judah, but King of
Kings over all the world.
During our Lord’s ministry, Judea was under Roman rule, however, there were
still rulers in Judea--The Jews. There were Scribes, Pharisees, and Priests.
Jesus said they had power and authority from God. "The scribes and the Pharisees
sit in Moses’ seat: all therefore whatsoever they bid you observe, that observe
and do..." (Mat. 23:2-3).
God has always elevated Judah above the other Tribes.
In I Chron. 2:1-3 we read:
"These are the sons of Israel; Reuben, Simeon, Levi, and Judah, Issachar, and
Zebulun, Dan, Joseph, and Benjamin, Naphtali, Gad, and Asher. The sons of
Judah;..."
Notice Judah was the third born to Israel [Jacob] and is listed third, but
when God gives their children’s names He starts first with Judah.
To show Judah’s dominance in Rulership, when the Tribes of Israel are
enumerated in Revelation 7:4, Judah is put first at the head of the list. He was
not, however, the firstborn!
"...and cambric (fine linen)..."
The Rich man didn’t just dress in "Purple," but "Purple and Cambric." He wore
both. Cambric or Fine Linen is symbolic of the clothing that the priests wore
(Ex. 28:5, 25:4). And of the interior decorations of the Tabernacle itself (Ex.
26:1).
Our Lord would not have told us that the Rich man wore these two specific
types of garments except that they have great symbolic value in identifying who
this man personifies.
But if "Purple" symbolizes "Royalty" and "Fine Linen" symbolizes
"Priesthood," how can the same man wear both? Only our Lord is both, King and
Priest.
Remember, the Levites and the priests were loyal to Judah through their long
history.
When they got the opportunity, they went with Ezra and Nehemiah back to
Jerusalem--back to Judah. They were part of Judah. They were called Jews. Only
one, had both the Scepter and the Priesthood: Judah.
Notice this Scripture carefully:
"Then rose up the chief of the fathers of Judah and Benjamin, and the
priests, and the Levites ... God had raised, to go up to build the house of the
Lord which is in Jerusalem." (Ezra 1:3).
There it is! Judah had both the royalty and the priesthood. And all these
leaders of Judah, Benjamin, and Levi, became who were known in Christ’s time as
"the Jews." And that’s why, although the Apostle Paul was of the Tribe of
Benjamin, nonetheless, he said of himself, that he was "a Jew."
In Judah were both the Royal Scepter (purple) and the Priesthood (fine
linen). And that’s the reason Christ took the time to tell us what the Rich man
was wearing! And no other personality in Scripture has both these designations
along with all the other identifying features attributed to the Rich man!
Father Abraham "...Child, be reminded..."
Judah could therefore legitimately call Abraham, "Father." Abraham was
Judah’s Great Grandfather. Abraham could legitimately call the Rich man,
"Child." Judah was Abraham’s Great Grandchild.
"They have Moses and the Prophets..."
The Kingdom of Judah did have "Moses and the Prophets." They were the
protectors and scribes of those very documents till the time of our Lord’s
ministry, when Jesus said that they "sit in Moses’ seat." Judah was the very
depository for The Law (Moses), The Prophets, and the Writings. Remember the
Oracles were given to the Jews (Rom. 3:1-2).
The Rich man said: "I have five brothers..."
There’s a rule of Scripture study that is very sound, and I believe is
applicable here. It goes like this: "Literal where and when possible." Most of
this parable cannot be taken literally. Why? Because for one, it often
contradicts the laws of science and physics. And two, it would contradict
hundreds of other plain verses of Scripture. It’s the "parable" that cannot be
taken literally. That does not mean that certain facts contained "in" the
parable are not "literal." Abraham is, undoubtedly, "literally" Abraham. Moses
and the prophets are, undoubtedly, "literally" Moses and the prophets. They
obviously represent themselves, not someone else.
With that in mind, who was it who had literally five brothers? Not that these
"five brothers" cannot represent something else in the Scriptures. For example,
there were five spheres where there were "Jews" who heard Christ proclaimed
after His resurrection:
Jerusalem
Judea
Samaria
The "limits of the land"
Those Jews dispersed "among the nations."
At first glance, you might think Judah can’t be this "Rich man." Didn’t Judah
have eleven brothers? Yes and No. True, there were twelve sons of Israel, one of
which was Judah, but not all by the same mother.
Judah’s Mother, Leah, had
Reuben
Simeon
Levi
Issachar
Zebulun
Judah makes six (Gen. 29:31-35, 30:18-19).
So who had five brothers? Judah.
That Judah (the Jews), is here personified in this Rich man, there can be
little doubt!
But who then is this "Lazarus?"
ABRAHAM’S BOSOM
The answer is not far to find when we see where he is: "in Abraham’s bosom."
Being in someone’s bosom shows a very close emotional relationship and position
of honor. Christ likens Himself as being in the "bosom" of His Father (Jn 1:18).
And John, likewise, who was very fond of Jesus leaned back into Jesus’ bosom (Jn
13:23). To be in the bosom of Abraham, or the bosom of Christ, or the bosom of
the Father, are certainly positions of great honor.
The Jews coveted that relationship with Abraham. They were so proud of their
Father Abraham. They knew that God thought highly of their Father Abraham, and
they wanted to be connected to that lofty position themselves. However, they did
not come even close to qualifying for such an honor. They loved to say: "We have
Abraham for our father!" But as Christ told them, they didn’t do the works of
faith that their Father Abraham did.
So Judah is not in the bosom of Abraham, but Lazarus is. Why? Who is this
"Lazarus" that he should have such a lofty position of honor with the Father of
the faithful?
I said earlier that the Jews, undoubtedly, understood who Christ was
referring to in both the Rich man and Lazarus. Remember that the Jews of
Jerusalem knew Hebrew. Their scriptures were written in Hebrew. And they were a
lot closer to these symbols and the Hebrew language than we are today.
"And Abram said, Lord God, what wilt thou give me, seeing I go childless, and
the steward of my house is this Eliezer of Damascus? And Abram said
"Behold, to me thou hast given no seed; and, lo, one born in my house is mine
heir." (Gen. 15:2-3).
In chapter 13 God had already promised great land and possessions to Abram’s
seed. But Abram had no seed!
Abram told God that since he had no son, his chief steward, Eliezer, would be
his heir and inherit all that was his.
Eliezer was so faithful a steward to Abraham that he was planning to make him
his heir and give Eliezer all his possessions and inheritance. Eliezer would
have been wealthy. He would have inherited the "promised land." He would have
received the "oracles of God" Ah, but no, God had different plans. Abraham would
have a son Isaac who would continue the Abrahamic line.
It appears that Eliezer will be left out. He lost his one big claim to fame.
Now he’s just a Gentile from Damascus. All his generations will be Gentiles
(dogs). Eliezer knew he would inherit all of Abraham’s posessions one day. And
now, that’s all gone. But he remains faithful.
Eliezer had ample opportunity to do away with Isaac on any number of
occassions, but he remained faithful to Abraham. He even took a journey to get a
wife for Isaac. Every step of faith and obedience that Eliezer took removed him
just that much further from the inheritance he always thought would be his. He
did all that a faithful steward should do. But every step of faithful obedience
to Abraham caused his inheritance to slip further away.
Imagine just how faithful and trustworthy a steward would have to be for
Abraham to leave ALL his possessions to him. Abraham was extremely rich. Why
look for "another" to pass these blessings onto? Eliezer has already proved
himself faithful. Abraham had already concluded that Eliezer was the only
logical heir:
"This Eliezer of Demascus ... born in my house IS MINE HEIR" (Gen.
15:2-3)
It appears that either Eliezer becomes Abraham’s heir, or he receives
nothing. Absolutely no spiritual promises or possessions were ever made by God
to Eliezer If he is not to get Abraham’s inheritance, which included all that
Abraham already had plus all that God is about to bless him with on top of all
his other possessions, then Eliezer is going to be poor as far as spiritual
blessings are concerned. As a Gentile, all he can ever hope for are the
spiritual "crumbs" that fall from the Rich man’s table. Not to fear: Through
faith God works many miracles.
FAITH OF THE GENTILES
"Now the woman was a Greek, a native of Syro-Phoenicia [A Gentile], and she
asked Him that He should be casting the demon out of her daughter. Yet Jesus
said to her, ‘Let first the children [The Jews] be satisfied, for it is not
ideal to take the children’s bread and cast it to the dogs.’ Yet she answered
and is saying to Him, ‘Yes, Lord, For the dogs also, underneath the table, are
eating the scraps from the little children.’ And He said to her, ‘Because of
this saying, go. The demon has come out of your daughter.’" (Mk. 6:27-29).
So clearly this Syro-Phoenician woman was not asking for a small portion of
food (crumbs or scraps), but rather a small portion of Christ’s spiritual
blessing. And clearly, Lazarus does not represent a street beggar in need of a
small portion of food. He personifies something much greater than one single
beggar in the street.
When Christ entered Capernaum a centurion [a Roman, a Gentile] asked Christ
to heal his boy. Christ said He would come. The Centurion said He need only to
"say the word" and he would trust Christ for the healing!
"When Jesus heard it, He marveled, and said to them that followed, ‘Verily I
say unto you I have not found so great faith no, not in Israel’" (Mat.
8:5-10).
Why then, are the Gentiles relegated to "dogs?" Not in all Israel did our
Lord find such faith as in these GENTILE "DOGS!" But "Judah" gets all the
blessings while the "Gentile" dogs get the crumbs? Ah, just when we think things
are going bad and God isn’t fair, He shows us His strange and marvelous wisdom!
As Paul Harvey says, "And now for the rest of the story..." What was Christ’s
response to this marvelous exhibition of faith by the Centurion?
"And I say unto you, That many shall come from the east and the west
[Gentiles], and shall sit down with Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, in the
Kingdom of Heaven, but the children of the kingdom [Judah--the Jews] shall be
cast into outer darkness: there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth" (Mat.
8:11-12).
Christ is not telling us that "Jews" from the East and "Jews" from the West
will sit down with Abraham, but that the "Jews" shall be cast out." That’s
contradictory. It’s the "Jews" who are the "children of the kingdom" who are
"cast out." And those from the East and West are "GENTILES." Christ is telling
us who these "many" are because He is commenting on the faith that God has given
to this Centurion Gentile.
LAZARUS IDENTIFIED
Christ rarely spoke of the Gentiles in His ministry. But He did speak of
them. And, although, He said He was sent only to the Lost Sheep of the House of
Israel, in His human ministry, He nonetheless, was making provisions for the
Gentiles, as in this prophetic statement. As Christ’s disciples were to be like
"salt" to the earth, this Syro-Phoenician woman, Cornelius of the Italian
squadron, the Roman Centurion, the Samaritan woman at the well, and others were
certainly like "salt" among the Jews. The very first sermon of Christ’s ministry
foretold the calling of the Gentiles, and it nearly cost Christ His life (Luke
4:13-30).
When it comes to God’s blessings, faith is thicker than blood.
God has not "cast off" the Gentiles!
So we find "Lazarus" [Gk: helpless] begging scraps from a rich man’s table.
Can "helpless" find "help?" Will God have mercy on him just as He did the
Syro-Phoenician woman and the Centurion? Yes!
"LAZARUS" IS "ELIEZER"!!
The Greek "Lazarus" is from Lazaros [Heb. HELPLESS].
But in Hebrew "Lazarus" is Elazar or "Eliezer" from el [God] and azar
[HELP]!
If Lazarus knew his Hebrew name, he would have known that help was on the
way. The "God of Help" had already planned this whole marvelous drama from the
time of Abraham.
Just as the Jews can look to their ancient "father" Abraham as a sterling
example of faith in God, so now, likewise, can the Gentiles Look to Abraham’s
Steward, Eliezer as a "father" of rare faith. Truly there is no partiality with
God--it only appears that way when we let the relative get in the way of the
absolute.
It is the Gentiles that God is primarily dealing with today! Paul says there
is to be only a "remnant" of Jews. His calling was to the nations. However, Paul
knew that God was still calling a "few" of the Jews. "If by any means I may
provoke to emulation them which are my flesh [Jews], and might save some of
them" (Rom. 11:14).
For nearly two thousand years now God is calling primarily the Gentiles..
GOD’S CALL IS NOW TO THE GENTILES
Lazarus [Eliezer] was: "...cast at his [Rich man’s] gate [portal]..."
It was the "Gentiles" who were not allowed into the Royal and Priestly House
of Judah. They could go no further than "The court of the Gentiles." Any
blessings they received had to come to them from inside where they were never
allowed to go! Though designated as "proselytes," they were, nonetheless, like
"dogs" who only got the "crumbs" or scraps! Hence we find Lazarus cast "at the
gate."
Little could these Jews hearing this parable realize that in just a few short
years all this would change.
"Yet now, in Christ Jesus, you [Gentiles], who once are far off are become
near by the blood of Christ. For He is our Peace, Who makes both one, and razes
the central wall of the barrier [middle wall of partition] ... He brings the
evangel of peace to you [Gentiles] ... for through Him we both [Jews and
Gentiles] have had the access, in one spirit to the Father" (Eph. 2:13-18).
And so today, the Gentiles don’t have to stand outside the gate, or be
separated by a barrier, or stay in their own court, and wait for handouts. They
have direct access to God.
And who has been preaching the Evangel for the past two thousand years? The
Jews? Hardly. It has been the Gentiles that have translated the Scriptures into
nearly every language on earth. It is those called of the Gentiles that are
accepting Christ Jesus as their Savior, not the Jews. It is really a rare thing
to find Jews accepting Christ as the Messiah. And that’s why we find Lazarus
[Eliezer--the Gentiles] in the bosom of Abraham, and the Rich man [the Jews]
engulfed in flames of Anti-Semitism for the past two thousand years.
"...having ulcers [full of sores]..."
Lazarus is not full of sores in Abraham’s bosom. He has been healed. In fact,
that’s what "salvation" meant in New Testament times. "Salvation" is a beautiful
sounding Latin word, however, it was never part of the New Testament Greek
Vocabulary. Not until six or eight centuries ago did the word "salvation" come
into translations. Before that time it was "health" that was one’s salvation.
And all of the very oldest Anglo-Saxon Scriptures translate it "health" not
"salvation." So for Lazarus "health" in the bosom of Abraham was salvation!
Lazarus doesn’t represent materialistically poor Jews, but spiritually poor
Gentiles. That’s the whole point here in the parable. Judah was rich and knew
it! They were like the Laodiceans who said:
"I am rich, and increased with goods, and have need of nothing; and knowest
not that thou art wretched, and miserable, and poor, and blind, and naked" (Rev.
3:17).
"...Father Abraham, be merciful to me, and send Lazarus that he should be
dipping the tip of his finger in water..."
In figurative and symbolic language the Rich man asks for a drop of water on
the tip of Lazarus’ finger. How appropriate! Who was it that refused to help the
"poor" with so much as their little finger?
"For they [Judah] bind heavy burdens and grievous to be borne, and lay them
on men’s shoulders; but they themselves will not move them with one of their
fingers" (Mat. 23:4).
"...and spake unto Rehoboam [King of Judah], saying, ... make thou the
grievous service of thy father, and his heavy yoke which he put upon us,
lighter, and we will serve thee. But he forsook the counsel of the old men ...
My little finger shall be thicker than my father’s loins ... my father hath
chastised you with whips, but I will chastise you with scorpions" (I Kg.
12:7:11).
Now Judah begs the assistance of a finger from a poor man! And not just a
poor man, but a poor Gentile! It was custom for pious Jews to cut a section of
their garment off if it were so much as touched by the finger of a Gentile. Now
the rich and lofty personification of God’s chosen people begs for the
assistance of a Gentile FINGER.
"God is not to be sneered at, for whatsoever a man may be sowing, this shall
he be reaping also" (Gal. 67).
"...and cooling my tongue..."
It isn’t his flesh that he wants cooled from this flame, but his tongue. This
man is frightened. His tongue is swelling. And well it should be. When people
are petrified from fear their tongue dries and swells. That’s why some
inexperienced speakers often need a whole glass of water just to get through a
10 minute speech.
David said:
"By the rivers of Babylon, there we sat down, yea, we wept, when we
remembered Zion" (Psa. 137:1)
Well, God brought Judah back from Babylon to Jerusalem, but Judah didn’t have
the same heart as King David. He failed to remember. David said:
"...let my tongue cleave to the roof of my mouth ... if I forget to remember
Jerusalem."
It was because of Judah’s "tongue" that Jerusalem was destroyed in the first
place:
"For Jerusalem is ruined, and Judah is fallen; because their TONGUE and their
doings are against the Lord..." (Isa. 3:8).
So in the parable we find Lazarus (Eliezer--a Gentile) in the bosom of
Abraham, and Judah, who should be there, on the other side asking for mercy. But
Lazarus can’t come over to the Rich man even if he wanted to, because of this
"chasm."
"And in all this, between us and you a great chasm [gulf] has been
established."
WHAT IS THE GREAT GULF?
Earlier I showed you from the Greek that there is water in this gulf or
chasm. What could this be all about? Certainly there is no literal chasm between
hades (unseen) and Abraham’s bosom. What or where is this great chasm? Does the
Bible speak of a great chasm that has anything to do with salvation or
rewards?
When the Children of Israel made their exodus out of Egypt, they were on
their way to the Promised Land. After receiving the Ten Commandments at Mt
Sinai, where they stayed approximately one year, they headed north to
Kadeshbarnea. They sent men to spy out the land. They were very close to Canaan.
But God sentenced them to thirty-nine more years in the wilderness for their
unbelief. How different they were from their ancient Father Abraham. After
thirty-nine years they again headed north, only this time through Edom and Moab
and approached the Jordan from the East. To get to the Promised Land they had to
cross over the Jordan River Valley.
The River Jordan runs through a great chasm (or gulf).
From Mt. Nebo Moses could see the Promised Land. The Jordan is in a huge
chasm. It’s a "far" way to the other side. This chasm, in fact, is so large that
it may well be one of the largest fault lines on earth! It starts on the
southern boundaries of Turkey and runs through Palestine, through the Dead sea,
trough the Red Sea, through Africa to Lake Victoria. But some scientists and
geologists believe it continues through Africa and the South Pole and reemerges
again in the Pacific Ocean. Now that’s a "Great Chasm."
Because of Moses’ sin, God did not allow him to enter the Promised Land.
Crossing "over Jordan" has always been used symbolically as a type of
"salvation." But just as Israel couldn’t cross the Red Sea except by a miracle
of parting the waters, so too, God supernaturally dried up the Jordan so that
they could cross over. So literally, they didn’t "get wet" crossing the Jordan;
they didn’t "get baptized." And neither did most of the rulers of the Jews "get
baptized" at John’s baptisms either!
It is always "God" who determines boundaries. Moses could not cross that
chasm. And no one else could cross over except it were God’s intention. Just as
Israel looked to the crossing over Jordan as their salvation in a new land, so
we too, are looking for a future complete manifestation in Kingdom of God. And
God alone determines who will and who won’t be in that Kingdom at this time.
In a real sense we too go into the Kingdom of God by way of the Jordan! Jesus
was baptized in the River Jordan (Mat. 3:13). And
"...whoever are baptized into Christ Jesus, are baptized into His death. We,
then were entombed together with Him through baptism into death ... For if we
have become planted together in the likeness of His death, nevertheless we shall
be of the resurrection also..." (Rom. 6:4-5).
Mortality kept the majority of Israelites from entering the Promised Land.
The generation that started on this journey died in the wilderness. Only a
remnant crossed over Jordan under the leadership of Joshua. And likewise, today,
God is calling only a "remnant" to salvation:
"God does not thrust away His people whom He foreknew ... Thus, then, in the
current era also, there has come to be a remnant according to the choice of
grace" (Rom. 11:2 & 5).
Mortality kept most of Israel out of the promised land, and by immortality we
will enter the Kingdom of God in full spiritual glory:
"Lo! a secret ... we all shall be changed ... at the last trump ... the dead
will be roused ... this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal
put on immortality (I Cor. 15:51-53).
And we enter the Kingdom under the new Joshua (Jesus) the Christ!
No matter what this gulf or chasm symbolizes, it is only "man" who cannot
cross it. Nothing is impossible with God. And God has given His Son authority
over EVERYTHING. It is blasphemy to even think that there is a gulf that cannot
be bridged by the Almighty Jesus Christ!
Though not a place of eternal torture in fire, there is, nonetheless, a realm
called "hades." It is an enemy of man and there are "gates" (not literal iron
bar gates, but gates in the sense that passage is restricted to all who go
therein). There are also gates and bars and locked doors in human prisons and
penitentiaries.
But there are guards and wardens who have "keys" to these doors and
gates--they CAN BE OPENED. Well guess what? There are also "keys" to the gates
of hades and it is NOT SATAN WHO POSSESSES THEM! IT IS NOT SATAN WHO HAS POWER
OVER LIFE AND DEATH AND RESURRECTION! Rev. 1:18:
"And I [Jesus] have the keys to hell [hades, the unseen] and of death."
It is senseless to boast in having "the keys" if those keys will never be
used to open the locks on the gates! Not only does Christ have the keys to all
doors, HE IS THE DOOR! When we enter HIS door, He enters OUR door and we dine
together. One day Judah will knock on Christ’s door and He WILL OPEN to
them.
Let’s read the good news:
"...I will make a NEW Covenant with the house of Israel, and the house of
Judah...For this is the Covenant that I WILL MAKE [future tense] with the house
of Israel AFTER THOSE DAYS [those days of blindness and unregenerate hearts
crying out from the symbolic gates of hades], saith the Lord; I will put my Laws
INTO THEIR MINDS, AND WRITE THEM IN THEIR HEARTS; and I will be to them a God,
and they shall be to me a people" (Heb. 8:8-10).
Judah had the "promises," the "Oracles" of God, the "Royalty," the
"Priesthood," the "Seat of Moses," the "Temple of God," the "Ark of the
Covenant," enormous "wealth and riches," the "Possession of the Land," and the
prophesied "Messiah." But they crucified their only Savior! For this they will
certainly go through many "tormenting" trials and afflictions, but the fire of
God’s Holy Spirit will cleanse them of their sins and they WILL BE SAVED--ALL OF
THEM!
"And thus ALL Israel shall be saved..." (Rom. 11:26)
So sad that the Scriptures are not believed and the gospel rarely preached.
People accuse me continually of teaching that unbelievers, and evil unrepentant
and unregenerate sinners will be saved in THAT condition. I have never even
suggested such a repugnant thing. God WILL CHANGE THEM. And it all begins in THE
HEART! They will repent at the goodness of God.
"And thus ALL Israel shall be saved, according as it is written, Arriving out
of Zion shall be the Rescuer [that’s CHRIST!]. He WILL be turning away
irreverence from Jacob [Jacob includes Israel and Judah], And this is My
Covenant with them whenever I SHOULD BE ELIMINATING THEIR SINS" (Rom. 11:26-27).
If we would but believe these simple and profound Scriptures there would
never be such distortions of God’s Word being taught as is the case with this
parable.
THE RICH MAN’S SIN
"And in the unseen [hades], lifting up his eyes, existing in torments..."
Judah [the Jews] proved to be totally unworthy of their high calling. Their
heart’s turned from the declarations of God. Claiming Abraham as their father
did not exonerate them either.
"‘Our father is Abraham.’ Jesus answered them, ‘If you are children of
Abraham, did you ever do the works of Abraham? Yet now you are seeking to kill
me, a Man Who has spoken to you the truth..." (John 8:39-20)!
Not only were they no longer "...of the faith of Abraham," but they had, in
fact, utterly corrupted themselves. After King David, Solomon broke God
commandments and covenant (I Kg 11:11).
King Rehoboam said:
"And now whereas my father did lade you with a heavy yoke, I will add to your
yoke; my father hath chastised you with whips, but I will chastise you with
scorpions" (I Kg. 12:10-11).
"...Judah kept not the commandments of the Lord..." (II Kg. 19:17)
And King Manasseh, of Judah, went from bad to worse:
"...he did that which was evil in the sight of the Lord after the
abominations of the heathen ... he built up again the high places which Hezekiah
his father had destroyed ... he built altars in the house of the Lord ... he
built altars for all the host of heaven in the two courts of the house of the
Lord. And he made his sons pass through the fire, and observed times, and used
enchantments, and dealeth with familiar spirits and wizards; he wrought much
wickedness ... Manasseh seduced them to do more evil than did the nations whom
the Lord destroyed..." (II Kg. 21:2-9).
"Judah hath dealt treacherously, and an abomination is committed in Israel
and in Jerusalem; for Judah has profaned the holiness of the Lord which He
loved, and hath married the daughter of a strange god." (Mal. 2:11).
HISTORIC AND PROPHETIC JUDAH
According to a "literal" teaching of this parable, the Rich man did nothing
to deserve his torment. But once we identify this Rich man, however, we find a
mountain of sins and evils that are attributed to him:
When John the baptist saw these same descendants of the Jews, the Pharisees
and Sadducees coming to his baptisms, he remarked: "progeny of vipers."
Our Lord used the most derogatory language possible in describing the Jews of
the first century:
"O generation of vipers, how can ye, being evil, speak good..." (Mat.
12:34)!
"And evil and adulterous generation seeketh after a sign..." (Mat.
12:39)!
"Why do ye also transgress the commandment of God..." (Mat. 15:3)!
"O faithless and perverse generation..." (Mat. 17:17)!
"...John came unto you in the way of righteousness, and ye believed him
not..." (Mat. 21:32)!
"Why tempt ye me, Ye hypocrites?" (Mat. 22:17)!
"But all their works they do for to be seen of men..." (Mat. 23:5)!
"But woe unto you, Scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! (Ver 13)!
"...ye shut up the kingdom of heaven against men; for ye neither go in
yourselves, neither suffer ye them that are entering to go in." (Ver 13)!
"...for ye devour widows’ houses..." (Ver 14).
"Woe unto you scribes and Pharisees, Hypocrites! for ye compass sea and land
to make one proselyte, and when he is made, ye make him twofold morethe child of
gehenna than yourselves" (Ver 15).
"Woe unto you, ye blind guides..." (Ver. 16).
"Ye fools and blind..." (Ver. 17).
"Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye pay tithe of the
mint and the anise and cummin, and have omitted the weightier matters of the
law, judgment, mercy, and faith..." (Ver. 23).
"Ye blind guides, which strain at a gnat and swallow a camel. (Ver. 25)
"Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! ... whited sepulchres ...
full of dead men’s bones, and of all uncleanness" (Ver. 27)
"Wherefore ye be witnesses unto yourselves, that ye are the children of them
which killed the prophets. Ye serpents. Ye generation of vipers..." (22-23)
"I send unto you prophets, and wise men, and scribes; and some of them ye
shall kill and crucify; and some of them shall ye scourge in your Synagogues,
and persecute them from city to city; That upon you may come all the righteous
blood shed upon the earth..." (Ver. 34-35).
"BEHOLD YOUR HOUSE IS LEFT UNTO YOU DESOLATE (Ver. 38)!!
Yes, there is more than ample reason for "Judah" finding himself in a "place
of torment!" Can we see how God combines them all together? Christ said:
"Ye are the children of them which killed the prophets" and "Ye fill up then
the measure of your fathers" (Ver. 32).
So why shouldn’t Christ picture the Jews in hades viewing this disaster of
their race? Of course it is figurative! God often uses just such figurative
language
"...he voice of thy brother’s blood crieth unto me from the ground" (Gen.
4:10)
In Revelation chapter 6 the dead souls of those slain for the Word of God are
crying out. This too is figurative. God wouldn’t allow His Conscious Saints to
be all piled up on a bloody heap under an altar for thousands of years. Jonah
was literally in "...the fish’s belly" (Jonah 2:1), but figuratively he called
it "...the belly of hell [sheol=IMPERCEPTIBLE]" (Jonah 2:2).
And so we have the Rich man (Judah) "crying out from hades." Figuratively, it
has great emotional power. The Jews corrupted themselves. In the person of Judah
they see the result of their ways. Notice that the Rich man never said one word
in his own defense. He knew what kind of a people he was. I find it hard to
believe what I am reading when I see the terminology our Lord used against the
Jews and their forefathers. Really, consider His words: adulterous, evil,
transgressors, faithless, perverse, hypocrites, murderers, blind guides, fools,
generation of snakes.
The Jews were given so much by God, but showed ever so little appreciation to
God! They have suffered like few races of people have ever suffered. Lazarus, on
the other hand, lived an untarnished life of faithfulness, and yet is promised
nothing from God--neither material blessings nor spiritual blessings. In life he
received "evil things." Abraham considered him worthy of inheriting all his
possessionis. God, on the other hand, disinherited him. This was an "evil" to
Eliezer. It was God’s wisdom in bringing this evil on Eliezer.
Little did these Jews know at the time that Christ spoke this parable, that
it would be only thirty some years future that their beloved Jerusalem would
once again be destroyed. But this time, God would also take from them the Temple
and the Ark of the Covenant as well. And little did the Gentiles know that Saul
[Paul] was already being prepared to take God’s spiritual blessings "to the
nations." It will be Eliezer himself who will be the first Gentile to not only
justify God in His actions, but glorify Him for the marvelous blessings that God
has bestowed on the Gentiles.
For nearly two thousand years the Jews have been without the ark of the
covenant or a Temple. The Jews have wandered from country to country for
centuries never even having a country they could call their own until 1948 They
have been persecuted everywhere they lived! This greatest persecution and
slaughter took place during Hitler’s death camps when reportedly six to seven
million Jews were exterminated!
The Rich man said " I am tormented in this flame." If one checks all the
parables it becomes evident that most of them were prophecies. And therefore
"flames" is most appropriate in describing the plight of the Jews through the
millennia. Not just the "Flames of Anti-Semitism," but even literally--remember
"Hitler’s ovens?"
I remember the words of a Jewish teenager after the Holocaust, bemoaning:
"The world stood still while the Jews burned. The pain! The pain!" Yes, Judah is
still crying out from the unseen.
And so the Rich man’s thoughts turn to "his father’s house" and his "five
brothers." What will happen to them? Even if they didn’t hear Moses and the
prophets, surely, if "someone should be going to them from the dead, they will
be repenting."
"Yet he said to him, ‘If Moses and the prophets they are not hearing, neither
will they be persuaded if someone should be rising from among the dead.’"
Well how could Abraham know that for a fact? Because it is really Christ who
is speaking, and it’s a parable, and it also is a prophecy of things to come,
and Christ knows all.
Ironically, the only person ever resurrected from the dead that we know by
"name" at this time was Martha’s brother Lazarus. Did that miracle persuade the
Jews? Actually, yes, many.
"Many of the Jews, then, who came to Mary and gaze at what Jesus does,
believe in Him" (Jn 11:45).
Yet when other Jews reported this miracle back to the Pharisees
"From that day, they [the Jewish leaders] consult that they should kill Him"
(Jn. 11:53)!
It seems like it’s always the religious leaders that have the most trouble
believing!
But how many of these "many who believed" stayed faithful? When Christ began
teaching them really "spiritual things," many could not handle it. Christ told
them that "The flesh is not benefiting anything" (Jn 6:63). That was more than
they would tolerate as most "Christians" today do not tolerate such a thought
either, and therefore:
"From that time many of His disciples went back, and walked NO MORE with Him"
(Jn. 6:65-66)!
This parable, however, is not speaking about Lazarus’ resurrection, but
Christ’s resurrection from the dead. All of Judea did not know of the
resurrection of Lazarus, but everyone heard about the resurrection of Jesus
Christ. Not only the Jewish leaders who killed Him, but all Jerusalem, all of
the Rich man’s brothers and everywhere the descendants of his brothers were
scattered: (1) Jerusalem, (2) Judea, (3) Samaria, (4) The limits of the land
(Acts 1:8), and (5) to the dispersed among the nations. And the message sent to
all these Jews, everywhere, was that the Christ whom they crucified has risen
from the dead.
JEWS STILL REJECT JESUS
Judah did not obey God through most of their long history. The Jews as a
nation did not repent at the preaching of John the Baptist. They killed their
own Savior!
"Let all the house of Israel know certainly, then, that God Makes Him Lord as
well as Christ--this Jesus Whom you [Jews] crucify!" (Acts 2:36).
But Christ forgave them before He even died:
"Father, forgive them; for they know not what they do" (Luke 23:34).
He commissioned his apostles to herald the good news of His resurrection and
the coming Kingdom of God to them again, but again, as a nation, the Jews
rejected Him.
So now what? So then Christ calls Saul to be "Paul." And so Paul preaches and
teaches in Jerusalem. And what kind of reception did Paul and his message
receive?
"Now he [Paul] argued in the synagogue on every sabbath ... Paul was pressed
in the word, certifying to the Jews that Jesus is the Christ. Now at their [the
Jews] resisting and blaspheming, shaking out his garments, he said to them,
‘Your blood be on your head! Clear am I! From now on I SHALL GO TO THE NATIONS"
(Acts 18:4-6).
Just as Christ prophesied
"...neither will they be persuaded if someone should be rising from among the
dead."
The Scriptures do plainly state that the Jews shall yet find salvation
through Christ’s Sacrifice, because it was God who blinded them in the first
place so that they would not and could not understand and repent! Isaiah
prophesied that they would not repent and so Christ did not heal them (Mat.
13:1915). "...us [Gentiles], whom He calls also, not only out of the Jews, but
out of the nations also..." (Rom.. 9:24). And
"I shall be calling those who are not My people [poor and wretched people
like Lazarus--Gentiles] ‘My people,’" (Rom. 9:25).
Yes ALL PEOPLE will be GOD’S PEOPLE!
If that thought doesn’t bring joy to our hearts, I don’t know what could. And
"I became disclosed to those [Gentiles] who are not inquiring for Me" (Rom.
10:20).
Since the time that Paul said "From now on I shall go to the nations," the
Jews have, except for rare and individual cases, rejected Christ risen from the
dead. But millions of poor rejected people like Lazarus have been brought into
Abraham’s bosom, into a close and intimate relationship with God Himself.
THE BLIND CAN’T SEE
What about these Jews then? Is the Rich man [Judah, the Jews, the whole house
of Israel] going to suffer in a fancied Christian Hell of devils and flames of
torment for all eternity? Why can’t we believe the Scriptures? And not just one
or two, but hundreds and thousands of Scriptures that point to the fact that all
is of God. God is operating all.
Many years ago I learned something most profound: "The ‘blind’ can’t
see!"
Not many theologians believe that. Surely, if we present it in just the right
way, they will see. No, they won’t. If they get sick enough of their life and
sins, then they will see. No, they won’t. If we tell them often enough and with
enough conviction, with hundreds of scriptures, and with charts and diagrams,
and with analogies and examples, surely then at least "some" of the blind will
see. No, they won’t. I’ll tell you why. Because the blind cannot see. I told you
it was profound. You can hold it closer to their face, you can shout, you can
shine a bright light on it. It doesn’t matter, "The blind can’t see!"
Christendom teaches that if people want to see and understand, then they can.
It's all up to them. No it’s not. I know people who are physically blind, and
they want to see, but they can’t because the blind can’t see.
When God Almighty "blinds" someone, they cannot see. I do not entertain any
such notion that this paper will persuade anyone who is blind, to see it’s
truth, unless God uses it to open their mind and remove the blindness. Let the
Scriptures speak:
"Does not God thrust away His people?... God DOES NOT thrust away His people
whom He fore knew" (Rom. 11:1-2).
"Thus, then, in the current era also, there has come to be a remnant
according to the choice [God’s choice] of grace" (Rom. 11:8).
"What Israel is seeking for, this she did not encounter, yet the chosen
[those God chose] encountered it. Now the rest [the rest of the Jews, all the
rest of Israel] were calloused..." (Rom. 11:7).
Who calloused them? Who is operating all? Now pay close attention to this
next verse. I just checked twenty-six translations and the Greek Text to be sure
I’m right on this point, and they all say same the same thing.
"GOD gives them a spirit of stupor, eyes not to be observing, and ears not to
be hearing, till this very day" (Rom. 11:8).
"Till this very day," was written 2000 years ago, and yet "till this very
day" today, as a race, as a nation, as a religion, and as a people, the Jews
have universally rejected their only Savior Jesus Christ.
Yes it was "God" Who did these things! Why would God do such a thing? Is
there some purpose to it all? Yes there is.
"But in their [the Jews] offense is the salvation of the nations, to provoke
them to jealousy (Rom. 11:11)
SALVATION OF THE RICH MAN (JUDAH & ISRAEL)
Well, since it was "God" who blinded the Jews and caste them away, will He
ever take them back and remove their blindness?
"For if their [the Jews] casting away is the conciliation of the world, what
will the TAKING BACK be if not life from among the dead?" (Rom. 11:15).
"...that callousness [by God Ver. 8], in part, on Israel has come, until the
complement of the nations may be entering. And thus ALL ISRAEL SHALL BE
SAVED..." (Rom. 11:26)!!
Look at Ezekiel 37 beginning in verse 13
"And ye shall know that I am the Lord when I have opened your graves, O my
people, and brought you up out of your graves." (Notice they come out of their
graves, not out of hell).
Ver. 14, "And shall put my spirit in you, and ye shall live..." (Notice they
shall "live." That means they were "dead," not alive in some hell).
Ver. 23, "Neither shall they defile themselves any more with their idols, nor
with their detestable things, nor with any of their transgressions; but I will
save them out of all their dwellingplaces, so shall they be my people, and I
will be their God."
Ver. 25, "And David my servant shall be king over them..."
GOD IS OPERATING ALL
How could anyone possibly believe any one of these verses and yet believe
that unbelieving Jews God will burn in Hell for all eternity. Let’s be
Scripturally honest here:
God blinded Israel (ver. 8).
God used their offense to bring salvation to the nations (ver. 11).
God caste Israel away so that He could conciliate the whole world (ver 15).
God will take back these unbelieving and sinning Jews (ver 15)
God will give them life from among the dead (ver. 15).
God will save all Israel (ver. 26).
God will not burn them in hell for all eternity, because they will be
sinless: "Whenever I should be eliminating their sins" (Ver. 27).
It is GOD Who is in control of the destiny of the human race, not MAN!
Perverting a parable to such gross extremes as to nullify hundreds of plain
and exact verses of Scripture (that are not parables) is a damnable thing!
Consigning billions and billions of human beings to an eternal Hell of torture
for all eternity is unspeakable. Not to mention totally unscriptural.
God’s punishments and chastisements are severe enough without multiplying
them a trillion times to the power of infinity. That is truly INSANE!
This parable, like all the others, has great and enormous consequences. This
is not the story of a single, nameless rich man and one poor beggar in the
street named Lazarus.
Christ preached the kingdom of God.
"I must preach the kingdom of God to other cities also: for therefore am I
sent" (Lk. 4:43).
Christ likened Himself to a "bridegroom" (Lk. 5:34). Now look at all of the
parables, and see how they point to the coming Kingdom of God when the
Bridegroom will make a great feast and hand out rewards or punishments according
to the "faithfulness" and "stewardship" or lack thereof, to His servants.
But time and again, those initially invited to this Great Feast are rejected
and those who had no claim to attend such a feast are invited in.
"Go out quickly into the streets and lanes of the city, and bring in hither,
the poor, and the maimed, and the halt, and the blind" (Lk. 14:21).
But, "...none of those men which were bidden shall taste of my supper" (Ver.
24).
How amazing the workings of our God are. First it looked like God had
forsaken the Gentiles--He did not. Then it looks like He has forsaken His own
people (the Jews)--He has not. It’s God’s way. This is God’s wisdom. And it is
so much higher than puny man’s ability to ever fully appreciate or comprehend.
When God removes all blindness, gives faith to believe, removes all sins, and
convicts the heart of the greatness of God and nothingness of our own selves,
ALL WILL BE PERSUADED! We can doubt it all we want, but we are not our own
achievement. But rather:
"For HIS achievement are we..." (Eph. 2:10)! "...our Saviour, God, Who WILLS
THAT ALL MANKIND BE SAVED and come into a realization of the truth" (I Tim.
2:4).
How dare any doubt God’s own ability to fulfill and accomplish His own will?
(See Isaiah 46:10-11).
FATHER OF THE FAITHFUL
If God cannot accomplish and fulfill His own will, what hope is there for us?
It is a gross lack of faith to believe that God will not accomplish His own
will. And whatsoever is not of faith is sin.
The reason Abraham is in this parable, is because Abraham is the "father" of
the faithful. Abraham BELIEVED GOD.
"By unbelief are they [the Jews] broken out, yet you stand in faith" (Rom
11:20).
Now listen to Paul’s admonition very carefully:
"Be not haughty, but fear" (Ver. 20).
"God parts to each the measure of faith" (Rom. 12:4).
Yet most Christians think faith is the one thing, for sure, that they must
contribute on their own to be saved. To believe such a thing is not only
unscriptural, but vane as well.
All of the haughty arrogance of Christendom would vanish over night if they
would just believe and comprehend this one beautiful and profound verse of
Scripture:
"Now what have you which you did not obtain? Now if you obtained it also, why
are you boasting as though not obtaining?" (I Cor. 4:7).
We must be thankful that God is calling us (the Gentiles), and to not be
haughty. Does any think that we are special but the cast-off Jews are not? No!
The Jews are very special to God. The Rich man asked for "mercy," and he will
yet receive mercy. "...God is able to graft them in again." (Rom. 11:24).
."For unregretted are the graces and the calling of God. For even as you once
were stubborn toward God, yet now were shown mercy at their stubbornness, thus
these also are now stubborn to this mercy of yours, that now they [the "Rich
man" and all his descendants--all Israel] may be shown mercy. For God locks up
all together in stubbornness, that He should be merciful to all [Jews and
Gentiles]. O, the depth of the riches and the wisdom and the knowledge of God!"
(Rom. 11:29-33).
God gave Abraham that kind of faith. God gave Eliezer that kind of faith.
Faith that doesn’t require substance, evidence, and proof. Every step of faith
that Eliezer took put him that much further from his inheritance. Eliezer’s
faith wasn’t in the "visible evidence," but in God. In Abraham’s case the
"evidence" (he and his wife’s old age) that God would give them seed, was a
faith destroyer. There was nothing in the visible evidence that would have given
anyone faith. Abraham’s faith wasn’t in "evidence" but in God. Children need
proof; the mature live by faith.
I am sure that there is much more that can and will be learned and understood
regarding this unique parable of Lazarus and the Rich man. However, whatever we
teach regarding it must at least stand on solid Scriptures and not contradict.
The real truth of this parable is not nearly as morbid as it may appear at first
glance. God has a plan that eventually brings all the Jews and all the Gentiles
to salvation. The very heart of the Gospel is the salvation of the Jews and
Gentiles, the salvation of the WHOLE WORLD!
[A Scriptural Journey Through the Intriguing Parable of Lazarus and the Rich
Man]
L. Ray Smith
Before reading my opening statement there will be many who will find fault
with this paper. "What parable?" they will ask. Contrary to all the Scriptural
proof that Luke 16:19-31 is indeed a classic example of a parable, there are
many who deny this fact. The reason for so many desiring to take this parable
literally is an attempt to add credence to the heretical teaching that God
Almighty is going to torture the vast majority of all humanity who has ever
lived by burning their flesh with real fire in a hellhole of insane pain for all
eternity. But even if we take this parable literally, it still does not support
such an absurd and evil teaching. When the truth is seen, the Rich man is
overcome with great emotional torment by whatever "this flame" represents, but
he is not physically being burned or barbecued in this flame..
That the Rich man is in a most distressful situation, there is no argument.
But he is not "burning in eternal hell fire." That Lazarus is being comforted,
there is also no argument, but neither is he presently basking in the sunshine
of heaven. The two main figures in this parable represent whole nations of
people who are either being shown the spiritual things of God or are being
blinded to the spiritual things of God. The situation looks particularly grim
and bleak for the Rich man, but certainly not hopeless as is taught in the
pulpits of mainstream Christianity.
Unfortunately, the parable of Lazarus and the Rich man has become a sort of
theological passport to the annihilation of hundreds of plain and exact verses
of Scripture. Next to the gross error in translating the Greek aion (a period of
time with a beginning and an end) into an English eternity (no time at all,
neither having a beginning nor an ending), I know of no greater
misrepresentation of any section of Scripture than this parable. I will be using
both the KJV and the Concordant Literal New Testament when quoting Scripture in
this paper.
Can those who teach that Luke 16 is not a parable, prove their position? No,
they can not. Can it then be proved by the Scriptures that this is a parable?
Yes, it can. Quite easily, I might add.
PARABLE DEFINED
Let me give you a technical definition of a parable followed by a more simple
definition: (1) "Parable: [Greek, para bole’= BESIDE CAST]--A statement ‘cast
beside’ or parallel to its real spiritual significance, a figure of likeness in
action." GREEK-ENGLISH KEYWORD CONCORDANCE p. 216. (2) "A short and simple tale
based on familiar things meant to convey a much deeper and profound moral or
spiritual truth," WEBSTER’S DICTIONARY. In Old English it was called a
"near-story."
Jesus spoke in parables throughout His whole ministry. In Matthew chapter 13
we are given seven different parables. No parable is literal or historical. The
second we make a parable literal, it ceases to be a parable. Jesus spoke ONLY in
parables (not true life or historical stories) among the masses of people who
followed Him wherever He went.
I am going to some length to demonstrate the absolute absurdity of teaching
this parable of Lazarus or any other parable as a literal and historical event.
PARABLES MAY MENTION IDENTIFIABLE PERSONS
Is Luke 16:19-31 a "parable?" Many in orthodoxy say that it absolutely is not
a parable because a person is mentioned by name and identified as a specific and
particular person. The mention of an identifiable person is not, however, the
test of a parable. Besides other parables do mention identifiable persons, but
they are still parables:
Mark 4:15 Mentions Satan
Matt. 13:37 Mentions The Son of man
Matt. 13:39 Mentions The devil
Matt. 15:13 Mentions God the Father
II Sam. 12:7 Is said to be King David
Ezek. 23:1-4 Mentions Aholah and Aholibah
Luke 4:23 Jesus applies ‘Physician’ to HIMSELF
JESUS SPEAKS TO THE MASSES IN PARABLES ONLY
Jesus spoke to the Pharisees and multitudes in parables:
"And He begins to speak to them in parables." (Mk.. 12:1).
Jesus spoke to the multitudes in parables ONLY:
"All these things Jesus speaks in parables to the throngs, and apart from a
parable He spoke nothing to them..." (Mat. 13:34).
Jesus spoke in parables so that his listeners would not understand Him:
"Wherefore art Thou speaking in parables to them? ... To you has it been
given to know the secrets of the kingdom of the heavens, yet to those it has NOT
been given." (Matt.. 13:10-11).
Not even the apostles understood these parables (Lk, 16:14)! Jesus had to
explain their meaning to them in private (Mat. 13:18, 36), (Mat. 15:15),
etc.
The fact that Jesus spoke to the masses in parables only, ought to be
sufficient Scriptural evidence to anyone that Lazarus and the Rich man is indeed
a parable. There are, however, many many more proofs.
A FIVE-PART PARABLE
What is the setting of this Lazarus parable? Actually it is the last of a
five-part parable beginning in Chapter 15 of Luke. Here is the reason for these
five parables in a row:
"Now ALL the tribute collectors and sinners were coming near Him to be
hearing Him. And both the Pharisees and the scribes grumbled, saying that ‘This
man sinners is receiving, and is eating with them!" (Luke 15:1).
Verse 2:
"Now He told them [the tax collectors, sinners, Pharisees, and scribes] THIS
PARABLE, saying..."
Jesus then gives them FIVE parables, one after the other. The phrase "THIS
parable" certainly is not limited to the next, one, parable only!
These are ALL parables and most scholars recognize them as parables.
My Oxford KJV even has at the top of the page over the parable of the
prodigal son, these words: "The parable of the prodigal son." The text does not
call it a parable, but certainly it follows that it IS the third part of a
five-part parable.
Notice the transition that Jesus uses between the lost sheep and the lost
coin? He says, "Neither..." Some translations have "Or..." This word certainly
connects it to the previous parable! Now notice Chapter 16 first verse, "And He
said ALSO unto his disciples..." "Also" refers back to all that went before in
this five-part parable, and now Jesus is continuing with the same train of
thought with the fourth of this five-part parable.
Notice next the introduction of the third, fourth, and fifth parables:
"A CERTAIN MAN..." (15:11)
"There was A CERTAIN RICH MAN..." (16:1).
"There was A CERTAIN RICH MAN..." (16:19).
Again, it is clear that these are THREE parables of a five-part parable!
PARABLES MUST ALWAYS BE INTERPRETED
Parables are not to be taken literally. They are to be understood
"figuratively." The real meaning is not in what they literally say, but in what
the symbols and figurative language represent. That’s why they are called
"parables." This is axiomatic!
Let us turn to some parables for proof of this point:
The Prodigal Son (Luke 15:32)
"...this thy brother was dead..."
Comment: He wasn’t literally "dead." He came home again "alive." God did not
resurrect him from the dead. The Resurrection is yet future.
So the prodigal was NOT literally dead, but from the perspective of his
father, he was as good as dead or he could have been considered Spiritually
dead.
Parable of the Sower (Matt. 13:3-23)
"And when he sowed, some seeds fell by the way side; and the fowls came and
devoured them up."
Comment: This parable isn’t teaching horticulture. It’s about "the word of
the kingdom" and how different people receive it! Birds don’t literally devour
the words of God.
Sowing Ideal Seed (Matt. 13:24)
"Yet, while the men are drawsing, his enemy came and sows darnel..."
Comment: The enemy "came." Past tense. Is this, therefore, an historical
fact? No. Read verse 39: "Now the harvest is the conclusion of the eon." This
eon hasn’t come to an "end" yet. And the "harvest" is people not grains and
vegetables.
Parable of mote in brother’s eye (Lk. 6:39-42).
"Now why are you observing the mote in your brother’s eye, yet the beam in
your own eye your are not considering?"
Comment: A beam is a long piece of timber. How is it possible to have a long
piece of timber in one’s eye?I know people who could fit it into their mouth,
but eye, never. This parable is about morality, not body organs and building
materials.
Is it not obvious that the literal, physical language in all parables must be
interpreted as a higher, spiritual lesson?
If the parable of Lazarus and the rich man is both literal and an historical
fact, then it contradicts not only the laws of physics and logic, but also
literally hundreds of plain verses of Scripture.
People are taught that the parables are real stories that Jesus told to help
the people understand His teaching better. That’s partly due to the fact that
with many of the parables we are also given the INTERPRETATION! How many would
understand these parables if we were not given the interpretation of them? Who
would have known Who the sower of seed is? Who would know what the stony places
are? Who would understand what the birds represent? Who would know what the good
soil represents?
Sure, it’s easy now, Jesus TOLD US THE ANSWERS! But He ONLY told His
disciples the answers, NOT THE MULTITUDES to whom He spoke!
THE PARABLE OF LAZARUS AND THE RICH MAN
According to the popular teaching of this parable, the Rich man is in an
eternal Hell of torture and Lazarus is in eternal Heavenly bliss. Well let’s be
sure then to pay special attention to those traits of character that have
separated these two individuals into two entirely different realms.
Below is listed in each column the exact "literal" facts regarding each man’s
character, virtue and deeds that is the reason for a supposed fate of either
eternal Hell or eternal Heaven:
THE RICH MAN
LAZARUS
He was RICH ... Ver 19 He was POOR
... Ver 20
He wore PURPLE & CAMBRIC ... Ver 19
He made
MERRY (Gk: cheerful, & glad) SPLENDIDLY [like Angels-Acts 10:30] DAILY ...
Ver 19 Probably CRIPPLED ("was laid") Ver 20
DISEASED ("full of sores") Ver
20
He had a nice HOUSE ("his gate") Ver 20
He gave
Lazarus FOOD [Gk. psichion, "a particle of food left over"-scraps] Ver 21
HUNGRY ("desiring to be fed") Ver 21
He DIED and was [Gk. entombed] Ver 22
He DIED Ver 22
He lifts up his eyes in [Gk. hades "the UNSEEN or
IMPERCEPTIBLE] Ver 23 Is "carried by the angels into Abraham's bosom" Ver 22
He is in TORMENTS ... Ver 22
He's ALIVE with a BODY, "eyes,'
Ver 23
He's ALIVE with a BODY, "finger "Ver 24
He desires a drop of
WATER ... Ver 24
In life he got GOOD things ... Ver 25 In
life he got EVIL things ... Ver 25
He is respectful toward authority
("FATHER Abraham") Ver 24
He was TORMENTED ... Ver 25 Was
COMFORTED [Gk. parakaleo = "to comfort when in distress"] Ver.
25
He could not cross the GULF ... Ver 26 He could not cross the
GULF ... Ver 26
Exhibits LOVE toward his family even while in torment ("I
have five brothers") Ver 28
PLEADS for their welfare
("Nay..") Ver 30
Examine these two columns closely. Is it not obvious that what is literally
revealed here does not lend itself to an eternal life of torture for the Rich
man or an eternal life of heavenly bliss for the poor man? Where else in
Scripture do the character traits in the left column come under eternal
condemnation? And where else in Scripture do the character traits in the right
column bring a promise of salvation in Heaven? Seriously, WHERE?
From what is literally stated about these two individuals it is hard to find
condemnation or praise for either party. We know for sure that the Rich man is
in a state of condemnation and that Lazarus is in a state of consolement, but
there is nothing in the narrative to tell us why this is so.
If taken literally, this parable consists of statements that are illogical,
unscriptural, contradictory, and impossible. But, when we understand the
symbolism of this parable, it opens up our understanding to God’s dealing with
all peoples on earth! We must know the real identity of these two individuals
before we can know that their treatment is a just treatment based on their lives
and based on God’s grace.
The Rich man received "good things" in life and Lazarus received "evil
things" in life. That is obviously true. However, neither of those is Scriptural
grounds for either being rewarded or condemned. Where? Present a Scripture.
Christ said that it is difficult for a rich man to inherit the Kingdom, for
example, and that certainly is true. But it is not the fact of being rich that
makes this so, but rather the power that wealth has over the soul to keep one
from pursuing spiritual things. Some people are "rich" and are right with God.
Other people are "rich" and are not right with God. But the bottom line is how
God has constituted the person himself that makes the difference, not the fact
that he is wealthy.
Don’t suppose that I am siding with the Rich man at the expense of Lazarus. I
am not. I am merely showing how ludicrous it is to insist that this parable is
"literal."
A VERSE BY VERSE ANALYSIS
Verse by verse now we will see if this parable can possibly be taken
literally. Luke 16:19:
DOES A WELL-DRESSED WEALTHY MAN SPELL SIN?
"Now a certain man was rich..."
Many reading these words immediately conclude that being rich must be a sin.
This is the one outstanding feature of this man--he is RICH. Is that a sin?
Abraham, just talking distance away here, was very rich (Gen. 13:2). Isaac was
rich, Jacob was rich, Joseph was rich, David (a man after God’s own heart) was
rich. Job was the richest man in all the East (Job. 1:3). And it was God Who
blessed them, that’s why they were rich. Being rich is no character flaw or
sin.
Besides, the Scriptures say:
"...God is not to be sneered at, for whatsoever a man may be sowing, this
shall be reaping also..." (Gal. 6:7)
And "...who is sowing sparingly, sparingly shall be reaping also, and who is
sowing bountifully, bountifully shall be reaping also..." (II Cor. 9:6-7).
"...he dressed in purple and fine linen (cambric)
[Gk bussos = COTTON] probably of a fine quality, perhaps a cloth with cotton
in the warp and flax in the woof.
Why should we care what color or what fabric of clothing he wore? Fine
clothing are not a sin. What does that have to do with a man’s character,
virtue, or deeds? If taken "literally," nothing. But since this is "symbolic" it
then is THE KEY TO UNDERSTANDING THE WHOLE PARABLE!
The description of the Rich man’s clothing and the position of Lazarus in
Abraham’s bosom are the two vital keys in understanding this whole parable.
"...daily making merry [Gk. cheerful & glad] splendidly..."
Is having a cheerful and glad spirit a sin? I don’t think so. Paul says:
"...that I may be of good cheer..." (Phil. 2:19). David’s heart was "glad" (
Acts 2:26). And the angels dressed "splendidly" (Acts 10:30).
IS POVERTY AND SICKNESS A VIRTUE?
"Now there was a certain poor man..."
Being poor is no virtue! In fact the Scriptures have a lot to say about
poverty:
"...a little folding of the hands to sleep: So shall thy poverty come..."
(Prov. 6:10-11).
"He becometh poor that dealeth with a slack hand..." (Prov. 10:4).
"...The soul of the sluggard desireth, and hath nothing..." (Prov. 13:4).
Many Scriptures show poverty to be the direct result of sin.
Again, Gal. 6:7, II Cor. 9:6-7. It is God Who makes both rich and poor (I
Sam. 2:7).
"...named Lazarus..." [Heb: helpless]
Why should we know his name if this is literal? Lazarus was a common name.
And who would ever want to be named "Helpless?"
We are not given the name of the Rich man. What does it matter one way or the
other what his name is if this is a literal story and we don’t know which
Lazarus this was anyway. Ah, but since this is a "parable" it does matter, and
we CAN know which Lazarus this really is and who the rich man really is.
"...who had been cast at his portal (gate)..."
Being thrown out into the street is no virtue.
"...having sores [Gk. elkos = DRAWER] (ulcers)..."
Being sick and diseased is not a virtue. Diseases associated with "the botch,
open sores, boils and ulcers" are very often a direct curse from God in the
Scriptures. See: Ex. 9:2, Job 2:7, Deut. 28:27, 35, Rev. 16:2, and many others.
"...yearning to be satisfied from the scraps (not crumbs)
[Gk. psichion = SCRAPS--A particle of food which is left over after eating]
which are falling from the rich man’s table."
It is no virtue to be begging for bread. "Crumbs falling from a table" is an
idiom, not literal. I have eaten at "Rich men’s tables" myself, from $25,000 a
place setting of China from the Ming Dynasty, and I assure you that scraps of
food were not falling from that table--Rich people do not eat like pigs! A few
"crumbs," is possible, but crumbs are not enough to feed a hungry ant, let alone
a grown man.
Besides, if Lazarus is a godly man why is he begging food? Read Psa.
37:25:
"...Yet have I not seen the righteous forsaken, NOR HIS SEED BEGGING BREAD"!
There is absolutely nothing in the discription of Lazarus that would indicate
he was a godly man. But when we identify him, there is much to show that he was
a godly man, and that his poverty and sickness was not that of a literally
diseased beggar in the street.
"But the curs (wild dogs) also, coming, licked his ulcers."
It is a dog’s nature to "lick sores," but they didn’t come to this man’s
house for that purpose. They came there to get "scraps" of food as well.
However, think for a moment. What does this bit of information add to our
understanding of this story if it is to be taken "literally?" Nothing! I mean
Jesus could have told us that, "the sky was cloudy" or "the cock was crowing" or
"there were holes in the street." So what? What do "wild dogs" add to our
understanding, if it’s literal? But we learn in Scripture that "dogs" represent
something totally different from four-legged animals that bark and bite. Here is
a real clue as to who Lazarus and his dog companions really represent. And as
this is a parable it was not physical scraps of literal food that Lazarus and
the dogs desired. Who then is this Rich man, who being tormented, nonetheless,
possessed and disseminated (albeit it small portions) of life-giving food to the
poor?
The Rich man, regardless of his character or lack thereof, was obviously
blessed of God:
"The Lord shall make thee plenteous in goods..." (Deut. 28:11).
And "...bless all the work of thine hand" (Ver 12).
As he sewed, so he reaped (Gal. 6:7, II Cor. 9:6-7).
He got "good things in life" and the Scripture plainly tells us that
"Every GOOD gift is from above..." (Jas. 1:17).
Lazarus was obviously cursed of God:
"...thou shalt. not prosper" (Deut. 28:16).
The "botch and scab" (Ver. 27 & 29).
He obviously sewed sparingly and reaped even more sparingly. When one is
homeless, hungry, and diseased in the street; it doesn’t get much worse than
this.
CONTRADICTIONS OF A LITERAL INTERPRETATION
If this parable is taken literally, we will find more than a few hundred
major problems with the rest of God’s revealed Word.
One will have to use a black marker or cut from the Bible most verses dealing
with spirit, soul, body, death, resurrection, immortality, grave, hades, sheol,
sin, punishment, chastisement, firstfruits, rewards, justification,
reconciliation, prophecy, grace, salvation and the sovereignty of God, just to
name a few! All of these contradict the idea that this parable can be literal.
All of them.
"Now the poor man came to die and he is carried away by messengers into
Abraham’s bosom."
Impossible. This statement if taken literally is neither historical nor
Scriptural. Many say this represents Lazarus in Heaven. How, pray tell, could
Lazarus be in Heaven while his Lord was still on the earth?
"Yet now Christ has been roused from among the dead, the firstfruit of those
who are reposing." (I Cor. 15:20).
Abraham wasn’t the "firstfruit." Lazarus wasn’t the "firstfruit." JESUS
CHRIST WAS THE FIRSTFRUIT OF THEM THAT SLEPT! The latter fruit, Paul tells us,
"are [still] reposing."
Jesus plainly said, not only had David not ascended into the heavens, but
that
"NO MAN has ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven."(John
3:13).
Teaching that this parable is a literal historical fact makes Christ out to
be a liar. When our Lord was alive on this earth giving us this parable, He
said: "...NO MAN HAS ASCENDED UP TO HEAVEN..." So how can it be said that at the
same time our Lord was telling us that no man has ascended up to heaven, that
Lazarus and Abraham are already up in heaven? This is not just an interesting
sidelight or opinion of Ray Smith. THIS IS ABSOLUTE, INFALLIBLE SCRIPTURAL PROOF
THAT WHEN JESUS GAVE THIS PARABLE THERE WAS NO MAN NAMED LAZARUS LIVING IN
HEAVEN WITH ABRAHAM OR ANYONE ELSE!! So here then is just one of the hundreds of
problems with the Scriptures if we insist this parable is literal.
There are many Scriptures that tell us where a person goes when he"dies." The
Scriptures say he "returns" from where he "came." So if he goes to Heaven, then
he "came" from Heaven; if he goes to Hell, then he "came" from Hell. But
Scriptures do not teach that people "RETURN" to heaven or hell when they die.
Read these plain and simple verses that tell us exactly where man came from and
where he goes when he dies:
"...till you return [Hebrew, shub] unto the ground; for out of it were you
taken: for dust you are, and unto dust shall you return" (Gen. 3:17-19).
"Remember I pray you that as clay you did make me, and unto dust you will
cause me to return" (Job 10:9)
"You cause man to return unto dust..." (Psa. 90:3).
"His spirit [the Hebrew word here is ruach, spirit, not neshamah, breath]
goes forth, he returns to his earth; in that very day his thoughts perish" (Psa.
146:3-4).
"...you gather in their spirit [Hebrew ruach, spirit] they expire [Hebrew
gava, breathe out, gasp, expire], and return to their dust" (Psa. 104:29).
"For that which befalls the sons of men befalls beasts; ... as the one dies,
so dies the other; yea, they have all one spirit; and man has no preeminence
above the beasts [in death]: for all is vanity. All go unto one place; all are
of the dust, and all return to dust again" (Ecc. 3:18-21).
Will any of my readers seriously contend that BEASTS return to either heaven
or hell when they die? Have we not just read in Ecc. 3:18-21 that "ALL [both men
and beasts] go unto ONE PLACE?" And aren’t "heaven AND hell" TWO PLACES rather
that "ONE PLACE?" Am I going too fast for anyone?
For sure our Saviour’s words are so true--the babes in Christ (minors) can
understand these spiritual things, but the wise in the wisdom of this world
cannot understand them.
Here is irrefutable Scriptural proof that when a person dies he returns to
the dust. Messengers or angels don’t take dead people anywhere when they die. If
this is literal, then they would have had to carry a "dead" Lazarus into the
ancient cave of a "dead" Abraham. The "resurrection" is yet future (I Thes.
4:16:18).
Remember how Paul told us of Hymeneus and Philetus who "...swerve as to
truth, saying that the resurrection has ALREADY OCCURRED [as defenders of a
literal interpretation also contend] subverting the faith of some." (II Tim.
2:18)? Lazarus was carried (in the parable) into Abraham’s bosom. Abraham’s
bosom is not the reward of the saved. Abraham’s bosom is not Heaven.
Furthermore, no more than one person could fit into Abraham’s bosom. It’s a
parable.
When Jesus gave this parable was Abraham alive in heaven or dead in his
grave? First notice what Gen. 25:8-9 says:
"Then Abraham gave up the ghost, and died ... and his sons Isaac and Ishmael
buried him in a cave..."
When Jesus was teaching these parables Abraham was still dead. "Abraham IS
DEAD" (John 8:52)! After Christ’s crucifixion and resurrection (nearly 30 years
after) Abraham was still dead.
"By faith Abraham ... sojourns in the land of promise ... he waited for the
city having foundations, whose Artificer and Architect is God ... In faith DIED
ALL THESE [Abraham included], being not requited with the promises ... for He
[God] makes ready for them a city" (Heb. 11:8,9,10,13,16).
Abraham had not yet as of the writing of the book of Hebrews received the
promises God made to him. Besides Abraham was not promised Heaven, but this
earth along with King David (Jer. 30:9) and the Twelve Apostles who will be
ruling over the twelve tribes of Israel on this earth (Rev. 5:10). And the
"City," New Jerusalem, comes down from heaven to the New Earth.
By the way, after Christ’s resurrection, we read that King David as well was
also still dead.
"...David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulcher is with us unto
this day..." "For David is NOT ascended into the heavens..." (Acts 2:29 &
34).
So consider: At the time Christ taught this parable, Abraham was STILL DEAD,
David (a man after God’s own heart) was STILL DEAD and the Scripture
specifically tells us that David DID NOT ASCEND INTO HEAVEN. Then to remove all
doubt and speculation regarding heaven, Christ plainly stated that, "NO MAN HAS
ASCENDED INTO HEAVEN!" Which part of the word "NO" is it that theologians do not
understand?
"Now the rich man also died, and was entombed. And in the unseen [Gk: hades],
lifting up his eyes..." (Ver. 23)
Impossible. He died, was entombed, and lifted up his eyes? Where did he get a
body in hades, seeing that they just sealed his body in a tomb? Have you never
heard of exhuming a body from a grave? Six days, six months, six years after
death, when they open a grave, the body is still there. And it’s usually rotten
and the "eyes" are decayed away.
"...was entombed...and in the unseen [hades], lifting up his eyes..."
If, as theologians teach that the grave is one place and hades is another
place, then no man can have his body "entombed" while at the same time the eyes
of his body can be lifted up in a place called "hades." And we know his body was
still in the tomb, so how can he be simultaneously in hades with a new body?
And how could this man "literally" lift up his eyes in "hell" seeing that
hell is the translation of the Greek word hades which means the UNSEEN or
IMPERCEPTIBLE? To "see" one can’t be in the UNSEEN, nor can it be a place of NO
perception. The parable says that he "died" and was entombed, but that he "lifts
up his eyes" in hades. He can’t be literally dead and literally alive at the
same time and in two different locations.
Hades is a Greek word (and is synonymous with Sheol in the Hebrew O.T.) and
it has a meaning. The elements are "UN-PERCEIVED." It can be properly translated
into English as "unseen" or "imperceptible." Now how can one "see" in the
unseen?" It’s ridiculous. How can anyone have "perception" in the
"imperceptible?" The dead can’t "see," It’s a parable.
There is no consciousness in [Heb: Sheol] or [Gk: Hades](Psa. 146:4)--none.
"Sheol" and "Hades" are synonymous in Scripture.
In Acts 2:27 hades is translated from the Hebrew word sheol. Look carefully
at these two verses:
"His spirit [ruach] goes forth, he returns to his earth; in that very day his
thoughts perish" (Psa. 146-3-4).
And "...there is no works, nor device, nor knowledge, nor wisdom, in sheol
where you go" (Ecc. 9:10).
"Device" [Heb. mchesh- bown--contrivance, intelligence, reason]. Do these two
verses in Ecclesiasties sound like "dark sayings?" or "tricky proverbs?" or
"difficult parables?" or "deep mysteries?" They are plain, simple statements of
facts that any child can understand! But notice how they absolutely contradict
the "consciousness in hades" theory.
One more Scriptural proof on this point.
"And it came to pass, that the beggar DIED ... the rich man also DIED..."
(Luke 16:22).
So from verse 22 onward, the beggar and the rich man are IN DEATH! Now Psalm
6:5
"For IN DEATH THERE IS NO REMEMBRANCE OF THEE [The LORD], in THE GRAVE who
shall give thee [The LORD] thanks?"
So, is it possible to take this parable literally without violating Scripture
after Scripture after Scripture? I think not.
WHAT REALLY HAPPENS IN HADES?
According to many, these literally happen in Hades:
But
according to GOD, nothing happens in Hades:
Do these things
literally take place in hades or only figuratively? "lifting up his
eyes"
"existing in torments"
"is seeing"
"he shouting, said"
"cool
my tongue"
"I am pained"
"you are in pain" "No work"
"No
device"
No contrivance
No
intelligence
No reason
"No knowledge"
"No
wisdom"
"Not anything"
"No thoughts"
In the center column we have seeing, feeling, hearing, talking, and reason.
In the right column we have nothing. The center column is based on one parable
that should never be taken literally while the right column is quoted right from
the Scriptures.
DEATH IS LIKE SLEEP
I have heard many jeer the idea that souls "sleep" in death. Although the
phrase "soul sleep" itself is unscriptural, the idea that the dead are
"sleeping" is most Scriptural.
"And the Lord said unto Moses, Behold, thou shalt sleep with thy fathers..."
(Deut. 31:16).
"And when thy days be fulfilled, and thou [David] shalt sleep with thy
fathers. (II Sam. 7:12).
"David slept with his fathers..." (I Ki. 2:10).
"Solomon slept with his fathers..." I Ki. 11:43).
Job said, "...for now shall I sleep in the dust..." (Job 7:21).
Get this one: David said
"...lest I sleep the sleep of DEATH..." (Psa. 13:3).
"For this cause many are weak and sickly among you, and many sleep [are
dead]" (ICor.. 11:30).
"Behold, I show you a mystery; We shall not all sleep ... the dead shall be
raised..." ( I Cor. 15:51-52).
"...the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep" (I Thes.
4:14).
"...My daughter is even now dead ... the maid is not dead, but sleepeth."
(Mat. 9:18 & 24).
"For David, after he had served his own generation by the will of God, fell
on sleep and was laid unto his fathers, and saw corruption." (Acts 13:36).
It is said even of our own Lord:
"But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruit of them
that slept" (I Cor. 15:20), etc., etc.
Now I believe all of these Scriptures. Either Abraham is dead, buried and
sleeping with his fathers, just as Moses, David, etc., or these Scriptures can’t
be trusted.
By the way, where do we read of "heaven" in this parable? There is not the
slightest hint of the word heaven in this parable! Abraham’s "bosom" is no more
heaven than my bosom is heaven.
Interestingly, not only did all these patriarchs go to sleep, but they went
to sleep with their fathers, and many of their fathers were idolaters!
So there we have a dozen Scriptures stating that God likens death to sleep.
In what way is being conscious and tortured in the flames of Hell analogous to
"sleep?" God says death is "sleep." Now in what way is conscious torture in Hell
fire analogous to "sleep?" In what way is a blissful life in Heaven analogous to
"sleep?" Well, of course, it’s not analogous at all. Yet God plainly says, many
times, that death is "sleep" God awakens dead people out of sleep.
Therefore, the teaching that the dead Rich man and dead Lazarus are not
asleep is wrong and unscriptural. It is only in the figurative language of a
parable can it be said to be different.
Let me give you a Scripture that will "lay to rest" (pun intended) this issue
once and for all. What happens after one dies:
"If a man die, shall he live again? All the days of my appointed time will I
wait, till my change comes. Thou shalt call, and I will answer thee; thou wilt
have a desire to the work of thine hands." (Job 14:14-15).
When a person dies, he must: WAIT ... FOR APPOINTED TIME ... TILL CHANGE
COMES ... GOD CALLS ... WE LIVE AGAIN...
When Jesus taught this parable there were no Greek Scriptures. So when this
"rich man died" he went to Sheol [Heb. the unseen or imperceptible, the abode of
the dead, the grave] It’s the same sheol that Christ’s soul went to at death:
Psalm 16:10--"For Thou will not leave my soul in the unseen [Sheol]."
This verse is quoted in the New Testament Greek:
Acts 2:27--"For Thou wilt not be forsaking my soul in the unseen [Gk.
Hades]."
Sheol and Hades are synonymous. The Old Testament says Christ’s soul went to
"Sheol," the New says His soul went to "Hades."
We know that Christ was the "firstfruit" of them that slept (I Cor. 15:20,
42, 43, 52, 53, 55, I Thes. 4:16-18). The "dead in Christ" are now "ASLEEP"
according to the Scriptures.
WHERE DID CHRIST GO WHEN HE DIED?
Read I Cor. 15 again.
"Christ died for our sins," "He was buried," "He rose again the third day."
All right, let’s be Scripturally exact.
SPIRIT: When Christ "died," where did His "spirit" go? Scripture -- Luke
23:46: "Father, into thy hands am I committing My spirit."
Comment: Do other
Scriptures verify this truth that at death man's spirit returns to God Who gave
it? Yes.
"Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was; and the
spirit shall return to the God Who gave it" (Ecc. 12:7).
BODY: Where did
Christ's "body" go at death? Matt. 27:59-60:
"And when Joseph had
taken the body, he wrapped it in a clean linen cloth, and laid it in his own new
tomb ... "
Comment: Do other Scriptures verify this truth that dead bodies
are normally buried or entombed? Yes.
" ... David, that he is both
dead and buried, and his sepulchre is with us unto this day." (Acts 2:29)
Do dead bodies normally begin to decay and stink after a few days?
Yes.
"Martha ... Lord, by this time he stinketh: for he hath been dead
four days." (John 11:39).
Would Christ's body have started to decay
had not God miraculously prevented it? Yes.
" ... nor was His flesh
acquainted with decay." (Acts 2:3).
Was Christ (Himself) said to be
where His body was? Yes.
"They have taken away the Lord out of
the sepulchre ... " (Acts 20:2).
Comment:
Do other Scriptures
verify this truth that the "person" or "personality" if you will, or whatever
you want the pronoun "He" to represent, is where the body is? Yes.
"
... David ... he is buried ... " (Acts 2:29) It's "his spirit" and "his soul"
but it's "he" that is said to be buried with the body.
It was "The Son
of man" who was entombed in the earth (Mat. 12:40 & I Cor. 15:3-5). "Christ
[he] died ... [he] was buried ... [he] rose again ...
SOUL:
When
Christ died, where did His soul go? "For Thou wilt not be forsaking my soul in
the unseen [hades]" ( Acts 2:27).
Comment:
Do other
Scriptures verify this truth that at death the soul goes to the unseen (hades)?
Yes. Psa. 49:15 " ... redeem my soul from the power of the grave [Heb.
sheol]."
Now, back to the parable:
NOT ALL PAIN IS PHYSICAL
"...being in torments..."
What are these "torments" that the Rich man is experiencing? Is it physical
pain from having his skin burned off of his body by real flames of fire? What a
marvelous thing it is that we can have access to the Hebrew and Greek
manuscripts from which our modern language bibles have been translated. We can
check every word that has been translated into our English bibles. And now, dear
readers, we shall do just that.
In verse 23 we have the word "torments" In verses 24 and 25 we have the word
"tormented." These three words are not translated from the same Greek word,
however. And there is a great reason why. This one point alone will demolish any
such theory that this Rich man is actually and literally having his flesh burned
by real fire.
Let us now see if Jesus gives us any indication whether or not this Rich man
will ever come out of this place of torments and what these torments really
are:
The Greek word translated "torments" in verse 23 is basanos.
From Friberg’s Analytical Lexicon of the Greek New Testament, we are told
that basanois which is a form of the noun basanos, means, "strictly, a
touchstone for testing the genuineness of metals by rubbing against it..."
In secular Greek literature this word (basanois) was used figuratively to
extract information from a person by torture or punishment.
From the Greek-English Keyword Concordance we read this, torment, literally a
touchstone, used to test metals for alloys, [and] then the examination of
persons by torture (Page 307).
Though the Rich man may, indeed, be suffering discomfort or pain, it is not
from fire burning his flesh, but rather from being tested and proved through
chastisement. .
It is an interesting fact of Scripture that except for Paul "punishing" the
church, there is only ONE SCRIPTURE in the whole new testament that uses the
word "punishment." All others use the word "chastisement" which always carries
the connotation of correction and bringing things back to what is right again.
Chastisement by it’s very definition CANNOT be eternal. There is always a
purpose and goal in mind with the use of the word chastise.
In Verses 24 and 25 we will likewise see that the word translated "tormented"
does by no means carry a meaning of being physical pained or physically
tortured.
"...he is seeing Abraham from afar..."
Impossible. The man is enveloped in "flames" and can clearly identify two
personalities from "afar" across a great chasm? Not with human eyes.
"And he shouting, said..."
Impossible. Proof: Psalm 31:17--"...let the wicked be ashamed, and let them
be silent in the grave [Heb. SHEOL]. There it is! There is no talking and no
shouting in sheol. If anyone can literally "shout" in hades or sheol they make
God a liar.
"...send Lazarus that he should be dipping the tip of his finger in water and
cooling my tongue..."
Impossible. If someone were in a literal fire they would not be asking for a
drop of water for their tongue. Their skin and eyes would be in much greater
pain than their tongue! The tongue is at least somewhat protected in the mouth
cavity. Now if anyone is so silly as to debate me on this issue, let them jump
into a fire and see for themselves which burns most--the eyes and skin or the
tongue? Besides a drop on the tip of one’s finger would be less than useless. It
would have no effect. None. It's a parable. This language is figurative.
"...I am tormented [pained] in this flame."
Impossible. Yes, it is possible to be "tormented [pained] in flame," however,
it is impossible to calmly talk about it while it is happening! If his body were
human so as to have a nervous system and feel pain, then of necessity that same
body would burn up. It is the destruction of the skin cells that is causing the
pain. Within seconds the skin no longer pains (it’s dead). Now it is the deeper
flesh that pains. But by then the man would pass out and soon die. I mean
really, these are things that people completely unversed in the Scriptures
understand. It is not literal fire that is causing him this pain or torment.
What kind of "torment" is God talking about in this parable? Is this physical
pain from the flames burning his flesh as is taught in Christendom? Not at all!
Note that he does not say "flames," but rather "flame," singular! The Greek word
translated "tormented" in verses 24 and 25 is a totally different Greek word
than is used for "torments" in verse 23. The Greek word here is odunao and it
means to be sorrowful or pained, but not physically, but rather EMOTIONALLY! We
can easily see how the Holy Spirit of God used this word in Scripture. Adunao is
used only two other times in all Scripture and both times it has absolutely
nothing to do with physical torture, but rather with emotional sorrow or pain.
"And when they saw Him, they were amazed: and His mother said unto Him, Son,
why hast thou thus dealt with us? Behold, thy father and I have sought thee
sorrowing [Greek: adunao, same word translated "tormented" in Luke 16:24 &
25]" (Luke 2:48).
"Sorrowing [Greek: adunao, same word translated "tormented" in Luke 16:24
& 25], most of all for the words which he spoke, that they should see his
face no more. And they accompanied him into the ship" (Acts 20:38).
Now then, does anyone believe that they were physically tortured when Paul
departed? Does anyone believe the parents of Jesus were physical tortured in
their flesh while they searched for Jesus?
Had the KJV translators been consistent they should have translated Luke
16:24 & 25 the same way. He was emotionally "pained" or "sorrowed" and not
physically tormented or tortured! The same word cannot mean both "emotionally
sorrowed" and "physically tortured."
The Rich man was emotionally pained or sorrowed by the flame (the testing and
trials), not tortured, and that’s why, as we shall see later, he wanted a drop
[a symbolic drop of water] for his tongue and not a barrel of water to cool his
body. Let’s not be guilty of adding to the Rich man’s woes.
"Now Abraham said, Child, be reminded that you got your good thing in your
life, and Lzarus likewise evil things."
If this Rich man is really being pictured literally in a hellhole of eternal
torture, why then didn’t Abraham say to him something like this: "Scoundrel, be
reminded that you were a liar, cheat, robber, blasphemer, drunkard, murderer,
ungodly, unholy, unrepentant, incorrigible, piece of slime in your life,so burn
in Hell for ever." But no, the Rich man is accused of no such things.
Most governments do not sentence people to cruel and unusual punishment for
minor crimes. Christian theologians would sentence this Rich man to all eternity
in Hell fire and I don’t see where according to what this parable "literally
says" he did anything bad. He lived a life of "good things!" In the literal
language of this parable no sin is attributed to him. Not ONE! The rich man got
good things, and for that we are told he will have his flesh barbecued with real
fire in an eternal hellhole of insane torture? Lazarus got evil things, and for
that we are told he will spend eternity in Heaven? Is anyone in this parable
said to be literally good or bad?
THE RICH MAN
LAZARUS
By all appearances and
descriptions, the Rich man was an educated, well-dressed, well-groomed and
well-mannered person who gave food to the poor, fed the stray dogs, had a merry
heart and cheerful disposition, and loved his family. By all appearances
and descriptions, Lazarus was poor, diseased, probably uneducated, poorly
dressed, poorly groomed, hungry, a homeless person in the streets.
We
know that God blessed him, because he "received GOOD" And Jas. 1:17 says, "Every
good gift ... comes down from the Father."
He was obviously not blessed
of God. According to TBN this man just didn't have faith to be healed. And
wasn't blessed because he didn't obey God. He wasn't very thankful. He never did
say: "Oh, by the way, Mr. Rich man, Thank you for all the food you always gave
me," Did he?
And notice carefully what this parable does not
say:
It doesn't say Lazarus was good, kind, faithful, righteous, or
loved God.
It doesn't say that he was an evil man, ever hurt anyone, stole,
murdered, cursed God, didn't believe in God, or ever did anything bad. It says
nothing negative about the Rich man. In fact, it really doesn’t say one, single,
positive, anything about him what--so--ever!
So we are to take this parable literally? As an historical fact? Okay
then, what does it "literally" say? Not what we might think it means but what it
actually SAYS:
If one is healthy, happy, prosperous, gives to the poor, is respectful of
authority, loves his family, is concerned for the welfare of others and is
enormously blessed of God, and has a life of "good" things, he will go to Hades
and be tormented in flames of fire without water and without mercy.
If one is poor, diseased, homeless, a beggar, shows no thanks for even the
little he does receive, has not the faith to be healed, and is not blessed of
God, but only has a life of evil things, he will go to Abraham’s bosom where he
is consoled and comforted in his distress [Gk: parakaleo].
Quite frankly neither one is a pretty picture. That’s because this is
figurative and symbolic language, so of course it doesn’t make sense literally!
It’s a parable.
Here then is the bottom line of the Christian interpretation of this
parable:
Live a life of good things now, blessed of God, and you’ll burn in the flames
of Hell forever.
Live a life of evil things now, cursed of God, and you’ll live forever in
Heaven.
Doesn’t make much sense when we look at it literally, does it? You know, if
this parable is literal, Abraham is on the wrong side! Abraham possessed many
more of the qualities of the rich man than he did of Lazarus (not actually, but
if we take this parable literally)! Abraham was very rich, loved his family, was
concerned for the welfare of others, provided for his servants, was respectful
of authority (especially of God), was tremendously blessed of God and had a life
of many good things.
According to the majority of Christendom’s interpretation of this story,
Abraham should be in Hell!
Actually Abraham is in hades (sheol), as are all the "fathers." And all the
dead ungodly people are there as well. They don’t know it, however. It’s very
quiet in hades, no thoughts, no praise, no anything--it’s "imperceptible" and
"unseen."
Back to the parable:
"Yet now here he is being consoled, yet you are in pain [adunaoI]."
If Lazarus is in heaven, where are all the saints? Where is there a reward?
Where is Christ? Where is the happiness and joy?
Lazarus is "consoled." This word in Greek is used in conjunction with someone
who is "in distress." So Lazarus is being "consoled in his distress." Doesn’t
sound like much of a Heaven to me. And the rich man is "in pain." Why? It
doesn’t say he did anything wrong, or evil, so why is he in pain? Who judged
him? When? For what?
DOES GOD SENTENCE BEFORE HE JUDGES?
When theologians insist that this is a literal story, they place a huge
blotch on the character of God! According to the Christian interpretation, this
man is spending eternity in Hell fire, but has never had his day in court. He
has been sentenced without being judged! This man could not have been judged,
because when our Lord spoke this parable, "The Judgment" was yet future.
"Verily, I am saying to you, More tolerable will it be for the land of Sodom
and the land of Gomorrah in that DAY OF JUDGING than for that city." (Matt.
10:15)
Now I never was good at grammar, but I don’t think "will be" is in the "past
tense," is it? And again,
"Men, Ninevites, will be rising in the judging with this generation and will
be condemning it..." (Mat. 12:41)
The "evil" men of Sodom have not yet been judged. The "righteous" men of
Nineveh have not yet risen or been judged. What are we to do? Get the scissors
out and clip more verses from the Bible so that theologians can be at liberty to
turn a parable into an historical event?
Besides, judging has to do with doing right or setting things right.
Punishment is meted out according to the degree of the crime. Punishment is
never eternal. And how does eternal torture in Hell fire equate to the
punishment for "having good things in your life?"
I have heard theologians say, "No, he’s in Hell for rejecting Christ’s
sacrifice." But it doesn’t say that. And it is the theologians that demand that
this parable be taken literally. Honestly, it doesn’t literally say anything
about rejecting Christ’s sacrifice, does it?
Well, okay, let’s look at that premise anyway. I heard a world famous
evangelist say regarding the Rich man in this parable, "You go to Hell for
rejecting Christ’s sacrifice." But, he does err not knowing the Scriptures or
history! Not only didn’t the rich man literally reject Christ’s sacrifice, but
it was literally impossible for him to literally do so.
When Christ taught this parable (Luke 16) HE WAS NOT AS YET SACRIFICED (Luke
23)! So how, pray tell, could the Rich man have "rejected a sacrifice" Who had
not yet even been sacrificed?
It is an amazing thing to hear world famous evangelists with audacity teach
millions of people that our Merciful God has already sent millions of fellow
human beings to an eternal burning hell to suffer indescribably in torturous
agony, and horrifying pain without mercy, all without a "hearing" or "trial" or
"just judgment" and for rejecting a Sacrifice Who had not yet even been
sacrificed?
MILLIONS OF GALLONS OF WATER IN HELL
"And in all this, between us and you a great chasm has been established, so
that those wanting to cross hence to you may not be able, nor yet those thence
may be ferrying to us."
Impossible. "Thus also is the resurrection of the dead ... It is sown a
soulish body; it is roused a spiritual body" (I Cor. 15:42 & 44). If Lazarus
has a spiritual body in heaven, how can a gulf or chasm keep such a spiritual
being from crossing it?
Notice this phrase, "...those wanting to cross hence to you..." What? Do you
think that is translated correctly? I assure you it is translated correctly. So
why, oh why, would anyone in Heaven be "WANTING" TO GO TO HELL? Isn’t it is time
that we concede that this is indeed a parable!
The last part of verse 26 should read as follows: "Nor yet those thence may
be ferrying to us."
King James uses "pass" twice in this verse. They are different words,
however. The first "pass" is [Gk. diabaino = THROUGH-STEP or cross]. But the
second "pass" is [Gk: .Diaperao = THROUGH-OTHER-SIDE, and is used of passage
over WATER] hence, "ferrying."
Here is water. Since there is water separating Lazarus from the rich man in
this chasm, why doesn’t the rich man just jump into the water? And the word
"ferrying" also presupposes "ferry boats." Even if the Rich man can’t swim it
would be better to drown than burn.
DID THE RICH MAN EVEN KNOW WHO MOSES WAS?
"Yet Abraham is saying to him, ‘They have Moses and the prophets. Let them
hear them!’"
Impossible. The rich man recognized Abraham on sight. Even called him
"Father." How could someone who knows Abraham "...hear Moses...?" Moses didn’t
live until hundreds of years after Abraham? How could the rich man’s "brothers"
hear Moses? Moses didn’t live until far into their future?
You see these are just some of the dozens of problems and contradictions we
face when someone insists that this parable be taken literally!
And where in Moses and the Prophets does it warn that if one is rich and
blessed of God that when he dies he will go to some eternal hellhole of fire and
torture? Or that a poor man cursed of God will go to an eternal heaven of bliss?
Now I have a few concordances, but I can’t find any such verse. If this parable
is literal, then somewhere in Moses and the Prophets it must warn of such a fate
for being rich and also promise a heaven of bliss if one is sickly and poverty
stricken. But where is there such a teaching in Moses and the prophets? There is
no such teaching in Moses and the prophets. This is a parable.
"No, father Abraham, but if someone should be going to them from the dead,
they will be repenting."
Impossible. If Lazarus isn’t dead. if he’s alive in heaven, why didn’t the
rich man say, "No ,father Abraham, but if someone should be going to them from
HEAVEN, they will be repenting?" How could Lazarus, who is alive, go "...to them
from the dead?"
"...neither will they be persuaded if someone should be rising from among the
dead."
The rich man is now persuaded. Why wouldn’t they also be persuaded? Because
it will take more than Moses and the Prophets and more than one returning from
the dead to persuade them.
DECLARE UNTO US THE PARABLE ...
I heard Matt Crouch say on international television that since the Jews were
prophesied to not understand, Christ spoke in parables so that this prophecy
would be apparently voided and they would understand. The Scriptures show just
the opposite:
"Declare unto us the parable..." (Mat. 13:36)
"declare unto us this parable" (Mat. 15:15)
"...the twelve asked of Him the parable" (Mk. 4:10)
"Know ye not this parable" (Mk. 4:13)
"...His disciples asked Him concerning the parable" (Mk. 7:17)
"And His disciples asked Him saying, what might this parable be?" (Lk.
8:9)
"Now the parable is this: The seed is..." (Lk. 8:11).
This is so simple a child can understand it. It wasn’t Christ’s explanations
that none understood, it was his "parables" that none understood.
The multitudes did not understand Christ’s parables:
"This parable spake Jesus unto them; but they understood NOT what things they
were which He spake unto them." (Jn 10:6)
If, as Matt Crouch suggests, Christ taught in parables so that the the masses
would understand, then the Scriptures themselves would prove that He failed
utterly.
Christ’s own disciples did not understanding His parables when he spoke them
anymore than the multitudes did!
"Therefore speak I to them in parables; because they seeing see not; and
hearing they hear not, neither do they understand" (Mat. 13:13)
"Hear ye therefore the parable of the sower" (Ver. 18)
"Then answered Peter and said unto him, DECLARE UNTO US this parable. And
Jesus said, ‘Are ye also [like the multitudes] yet without understanding?’"
(Mat. 15:15-16)
"And he said unto them, Know ye not this parable? and how then will ye know
all parables?" (Mk. 4:13)
Christ had to explain all the parables to them!
"And with many such parables spake he the word ... but without a parable
SPAKE HE NOT: and when they were ALONE, He expounded all things to His
disciples" (Mk. 4:33-34)!
It is interesting what Christ said here. If his disciples didn’t understand
"this" parable, "how then will ye know "all" parables?" There is a continuity
among most of the parables. They basically speak of the same peoples and the
same events.
The disciples weren’t so foolish, however, as to believe that this parable
was to be taken literally, anymore than they believed any of the parables were
to be taken literally! That’s why our Lord explained all the parables to them in
private. Read it and believe.
One can only take this parable literally at the expense of contradicting
hundreds of other plain Scriptures! I have presented more than ample Scriptural
proof that this is a parable and that it cannot be taken "literally!"
Like most parables, it was prophecy not history! If one persists in thinking
this parable can be understood completely "literally" in contradiction of
hundreds of plain Scriptures of facts to the contrary, I don’t know what else I
can say. Maybe the "Flat Earth Society" of Great Britain is still accepting new
memberships.
Before I explain this parable, please notice something. The condition the
Rich man now finds himself in was not something he had anticipated in "life."
Abraham making reference to Moses and the Prophets, presupposes that the Rich
man was familiar with these writings. However, nothing in these writings gives
any warning of going to a "fiery place of torment" immediately upon death. Nor
does the parable state that this condition of the Rich man [in torment] and
Lazarus [consoled in his distress] is permanent or endless. Furthermore, being
"not persuaded" by either "Moses and the Prophets" or "someone rising from the
dead" does NOT preclude that there is nothing that ever will persuade them in
the future! That is false opinion, not Scripture.
The truth is, there are many, many Scriptures that do tell us when and what
actually will persuade the "Rich man," "his brothers," "all mankind," and "every
celestial being" in the entirety of the universe!
It is that truth of the salvation of ALL that IS the gospel, the "Good News."
God is operating to bring all to salvation, (Eph. 1:10-11, Phil. 2:10, I Tim.
2:4-6, 4:10) "These things command and teach" (Ver. 11).
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
THE PARABLE OF LAZARUS AND THE RICH MAN
(A Scriptural explanation)
Before I go into the explanation of Lazarus and the Rich man, I feel a
certain amount of background information is essential.
As most explanations and commentaries on this parable are extremely short
(even by those who do understand it’s proper setting), much of this material is
my own research and, therefore, certainly could be better refined than I am
presenting it. I can see now that one could easily write a sizable book in
expounding this parable. Here, however, is sufficient evidence to set us on the
right track of understanding this parable. The accepted Christian interpretation
of this par- able is unscriptural and heresy of the darkest kind!
"Jesus came unto His own, and His own received Him Not. (Jn. 1:11)
Who were these people, "His own?" Many would say, the Jews. And they are
right, but who are the "Jews?" Paul was of the Tribe of Benjamin, yet he called
himself "a Jew." How can this be? Today, for example, we have Hebrew University
in Jerusalem, in the ancient land of Judea, in the nation of Israel, and it’s
occupants call themselves Jews. Where did all these names come from?
Biblically speaking there are two broad categories of people in the
world--The Children of Israel and the Other nations. Later this designation was
shortened to "The Jews and The Gentiles."
HEBREWS, ISRAELITES, AND JEWS
It all began with Eber [Heber] who was the forefather of all Hebrews
(Gen.10:21). Abraham [Abram] was of this lineage and so is an "Hebrew." There
were other lines of Hebrews also. God changed Abram’s name to Abraham signifying
that he would become a "Father of Many Nations" (Gen. 16:7-11). Abraham had a
son Isaac, and Isaac had two sons, Esau and Jacob.
God changed Jacob’s name to "Israel" (Gen.. 32:28). And Israel had twelve
sons: Reuben, Simeon, Levi, Judah, Dan, Napthali, Gad, Asher, Issachar, Zebulun,
Joseph, and Benjamin (Gen.. 35:23-16), who then became known as "The Children of
Israel."
The "Children of Israel" became God’s "chosen" people: "For thou art an holy
people unto the Lord thy God: the Lord thy God hath chosen thee to be a special
people unto Himself, above all peoples that are upon the face of the earth"
(Deut. 7:6).
God’s relationship with Israel was so close that He married them: "For thy
Maker is thine husband; the Lord of hosts is His name; and thy Redeemer the Holy
One of Israel; The God of the whole earth shall He be called" (Isa. 54:5).
The Tribe of Judah early on was chosen of God to lead in battle (Jg. 1:2).
The various Tribes warred against each other during a period of civil wars. They
finally became united under two powers, Judah and Israel. David was anointed
King of Judah (II Sam. 2:4) and then later King over Israel (II Sam. 5:3).
In I Kg. 12:19-21 Judah (with the tribe of Benjamin) is again at war with
Israel. Israel was then known as the "Ten Tribes." Many of the Priests and
Levites left Israel and went to Jeru- salem under Judah (II Chron. 11:13).
And so the Kingdom of Israel (with its capital at Samaria), and the Kingdom
of Judah (with it’s Capital at Jerusalem) were separate nations for several
centuries.
Eventually, Israel was destroyed and driven into captivity by the Assyrians
(II Kg. 18:11) and later Judah was destroyed and driven into captivity by
Babylon (Jer. 30:9).
Nehemiah comes to power and returns eventually to Jerusalem to rebuild it,
and takes Priests and Levites with him (Neh. 2:1-8). Ezra also returns to
Jerusalem with a large company of Jews (Ezra 7:8).
"Even all the Jews returned out of all places whither they were driven..."
(Jer. 40:11-12)
I doubt that many in Judea and Jerusalem even knew for sure which Tribes they
came from by the time of our Lord’s ministry.
To show how dominant Judah was in absorbing all these Tribes and passing on
his name to them, look at Judges 17:7:
"And there was a young man out of Bethlehem-judah of the family of Judah, who
was a Levite..."
He was a Levite who was considered Juhah’s family.
The Priests, of course, did have to know their lineage or they would not be
qualified for the Priesthood. Paul was an extremely well-educated man and
therefore did know his lineage. So let’s see if this makes sense now. With all
these things in mind, maybe we can better understand how these different names
are used and applied to even the same person.
Paul, for example, was an Hebrew (Phil. 3:5) through Abraham (Rom. 11:1), and
through Isaac, was an Israelite through Israel (Rom. 11:1), was a Benjamite
through the Tribe of Benjamin (Rom. 11:1), from Tarsus of Cilicia (Acts 21:39),
was educated in Jerusalem, was trained a Pharisee, under Gamaliel, spoke Hebrew
& Greek (Acts 22:2-3), was also a Roman (Acts 16:37), and also calls himself
A JEW (Acts 21:39).
So here’s what happened. In the Old Testament all Jews were Israelites, but
not all Israelites were Jews. Like all Floridians are Americans, but not all
Americans are Floridians. But, because Judah was always the dominant Tribe and
Israel was once again gathered in Judea under Judah’s leadership, and because
many of the individual Tribes became so mixed in inter- tribal and interracial
marriage, many became designated as "Jews" in the New Testament. Even today,
many known "Jews" may really be "Danites" or "Reubenites" etc. Many thinking
themselves Gentiles could really be descendants of Israelites or Jews or other
lines of Hebrews and not even know it..
I always considered myself a "Gentile" until a recent trip to Germany and
Amsterdam, where I talked to different people about the early immigrants to
America. My last name was "Schmidt" two hundred years ago, but when I mentioned
other family names in my genealogy they told me: "That’s Jewish, that’s Jewish,
etc.," My father was David, his father was Charles, his father was Thomas, his
father was Manuel, his father was Isaac, his father was Abraham, and his father
was Jacob. They told me that "true Germans" almost never named their children
with Hebrew names. So maybe I’m a "Jew." Only God knows for sure.
But the point I want to make is that at the time of our Lord, Judah (the
Jews) dominated to the extent that all non-Gentiles were referred to as Jews,
although "Israel" as their historical origin was still used. The name "Israel"
is used some 120 times in the N.T., while "Jews" is used some 360 times. So they
really are used interchangeably. They are all Israelites, but Judah has always
dominated. It will be important to keep these things in mind as we discuss this
parable.
WHY PARABLES?
When one looks at all the parables, as they are "literally" written they
really are of little spiritual value, and often are physiological
impossibilities, or don’t tell us things we didn’t already know.
Look at the parable of the tares: A man sews good seed. An enemy sews tares.
A servant suggests they pull out the tares. The owner suggests that would pull
out the good wheat as well.. So he says to wait till harvest and then separate
the wheat from the tares, (Mat. 13:24-30). None of the parables are to be
understood in their literal language. Some, like Lazarus and the Rich man, are
physiological impossibilities if taken literally.
Interestingly, this parable of the tares can be taken literally. That is it
makes sense even in its literal language, and does not contradict other
Scriptures.
However, it was not meant to be taken literally, and if we take this parable
"literally," what do we learn? Quite frankly, not much. Are you suggesting that
Christ wasted His time giving little household hints and horticultural tips?
Like, how to weed your garden? Come on.
When Christ explains this parable to His disciples, it takes on enormous
meaning never even suggested in the "literal" story. Parables are in some ways
like fine poetry. Marvelous word pictures having giant spiritual applications
and ramifications can be presented with very few words, AND, it is God’s purpose
to conceal many of the truths of His Kingdom except to those to whom it is given
to understand.
See the spiritual application of Matt. 14:37-43:
The "sower" is none less than the Son of man.
The "field" is the world.
The "good seed" are the children of the Kingdom of God.
The "tares" are the children of the wicked one (Satan).
The "harvest" is the end of the age.
Now that’s some pretty heavy stuff! This is no horticultural tip for would be
farmers. I have already shown how utterly ludicrous it is to try and take
Lararus and the Rich man literally, not to mention totally unscriptural..
Christ is not telling us about some "one" individual rich man and some "one"
insignificant beggar in the street. Look at that parable of the "tares" again.
Literally it is nothing. But what it represents in figurative and symbolic
language is awesome. It has to do with the operations of God, Satan, millions of
people and the very end of this age.
Through symbolism and personification, God often uses one some thing or
person to represent many or even multitudes and whole nations of people:
"This image’s head was of fine gold...Thou, O king, art a king of
kings...THOU ART this head of gold" (Dan. 2:32, 37, 38)
The "image" represented King Nebuchadnezzar, but the "King" represented all
Babylon and all the nations and kingdoms that he conquered.
"And this is the blessing of Judah: and he said, Hear, Lord, the voice of
Judah..." (Deut. 33:7)
This was not "literally" the voice of the one man, "Judah," but of his
Descendants. Judah had "literally" died hundreds of years earlier.
"And Judah said unto Simeon his brother ... and they slew of them in Bezek
ten thousand men." (Judges 1:3-4)
Judah was dead, Simeon was dead, and two individuals could hardly "slay ten
thousand men!" Clearly, Judah represents the children of Judah or as they are
called, Jews. Remember this, this is important!
All of the parables have huge consequences. They depict giant events to come
on this world. They deal with the future of millions and billions--not just a
beggar in the street somewhere. Let’s not cheapen or demean this parable.
There is a continuity running through most of the parables. Virtually all of
the parables deal with punishments and rewards on the same people at the same
event. Although the meaning of His parables were hidden, on one occasion Christ
did identify Himself in a parable. Correctly translated thus:
"Undoubtedly you will be declaring to me this parable: ‘Physician cure your
self’" (Concordant Literal New Testament).
And on one occasion the Pharisees did realize that Christ was talking about
them even if they didn’t understand the parable completely:
"And the chief priests and the scribes the same hour sought to lay hands on
Him; and they feared the people: for they perceived that He had spoken this
parable against them" (Luke 20:19)!
It is also important to note that a few verses before this parable it is
stated that Christ was giving these parables partly because the Pharisees were
"...inherently fond of money" (Lk. 16:14).
But in the parable of "Lazarus and the Rich man," surely they understood who
it was that Christ was speaking of. In the parable of the "tares" no one could
even guess who or what the "tares" represented without explanation. But in
"Lazarus and the rich man" there are more hints and more identifiable symbols
and facts given than in any other parable in the Gospels.
The Pharisees may have been hypocrites, but they, nonetheless, were highly
educated and familiar with the Hebrew Scriptures. They knew what "Purple and
Fine Linen" symbolized. The name "Lazarus" wouldn’t necessarily have meant too
much to them (it was a common name) until we find him "in the bosom of Abraham."
Now they knew for sure which Lazarus our Lord was making reference to. And when
they were told that the rich man had "Moses and the Prophets" there was little
doubt left. And this rich man had "five brothers." That clinched it. Surely they
knew for certain who these men are.
And although they probably hadn’t a clue as to the real meaning of the
parable, there was no doubt that our Lord did not portray the rich man in a very
favorable light.
THE PARABLE
"There was a certain rich man..." Authorized Version
"Now a certain man was rich..." Concordant Literal New Testament
I am not convinced that the first and second verses of this parable should
not be a question. As in, "WHO was a rich man...? And, "WHO was a beggar named
Lazarus. . ."
The Greek word translated "certain" is ti (neuter), tis (mas. and fem.)
generally has the meaning of "any." However, the indefinite pronoun "any," used
freely, especially in questions, where English uses ‘who,’ ‘whose,’ ‘which,’
‘what,’ ‘why,’ or with negatives, ‘(any)one’, though, when possible, we seek to
preserve its indefiniteness by rendering it ‘any,’ ‘some,’ or ‘certain.’"
Greek-English Keyword Concordance p. 15.
So certainly we can render this word in this particular passage as "certain."
That is if we use Webster’s Third definition of "certain" which means "3. not
named or described, though perhaps known." However, if we use Webster’s First
definition of "certain" it destroys this "questionable" character of the word:
"1. Without any doubt or question; sure; positive."
Christ asked: "Who [tis] touched my clothes?" (Mk. 5:30). Certainly, the
answer couldn’t be "ANY." And, likewise, Christ asks "Whose [ti] is this image
and the inscription?" (Matt. 22:20). Again, the answer certainly could not be
"any image," or "a certain image." It was definitely "Caesar’s" image. Let’s
face it, showing someone a famous "image" and then asking "who" it is, is a
pretty big clue.
Now this verse is particularly interesting, because everyone or anyone would
have known "whose" image was on the coin, yet Christ merely asked the "question"
to confirm that fact! And in the same way I believe Christ asked "who" was this
rich man and "who" was this poor man Lazarus, (with all the accompanying clues
and symbols) to merely confirm in their minds that they surely already knew who
these two personages were!
I firmly believe that the "who" of this parable is just as important or even
more important than the "what" of the parable. Without knowing "who" is spoken
of, the "what" makes almost no sense at all! The Pharisees undoubtedly did not
understand the prophetic fulfillment of this parable any more than they did any
of the other parables. However, just as in Luke 20 the Pharisees knew Christ was
speaking about them, I believe they also knew full well the identity of this
rich man and Lazarus .
Although I know of no translation that does translate this verse into a
question, I nonetheless, do not at present believe it would violate any rules if
it were translated a question. Hey, I’m a roofer not a scholar.
"Now who was a rich man...?"
"Now who was a poor man named Lazarus, who had been cast at his gate...?
Yes, "Who?" That is the question.
There were lots of "rich men" and lots of "poor beggars" and Lazarus was a
common name. But "who" was this rich man and "who" was this particular Lazarus,
that’s the question! It is not necessary, however, to the explanation of the
parable whether it should have a question mark or not. I just believe it lends
itself to a question as do the other scriptures where "who?" is used.
THE RICH MAN IDENTIFIED
There is only one man who Scripturally fits all the descriptions of the "rich
man" in this parable. Only one person who "personifies" all of the symbols and
identifying clues given of this rich man. And that man is:
"JUDAH !"
But not just Judah as an historical individual, but collectively. All Israel
under the headship of Judah, the Jews. And the Jews were "rich."
Beginning back in Gen. 15:14 God prophesied that Abraham’s descendants were
to be very rich. "And also that nation, whom they shall serve, will I judge: and
afterward shall they come out with great substance."
"Therefore the Lord stablished the kingdom in his hand and all Judah brought
to Jehoshaphat presents; and he had riches and honour in abundance" (II Chron.
17:5)
"...and he built in Judah castles, and cities of store" (Ver. 12)
Jerusalem had a standing army of 860,000 men! (II Chron. 17:13-18). And that
didn’t even include the fortified cities in Judah. (Ver. 19)
Hezekiah (King of Judah):
"...had exceeding much riches and honour; and he made himself treasures for
silver, and for gold, and for precious stones...all manner of pleasant jewels;
storehouses also for the increase of corn, and wine, and oil, and stalls for all
manner of beasts ... he provided him cities, possessions of flocks and herds in
abundance; for God had given him substance very much" (II Ch 32:27-29.
So yes, Judah was rich. And who to this day are universally known for having
money and being successful in the financial world? The Jews. However, these were
just some of Judah’s material possessions. Judah was rich in another way--very
rich. Judah possessed something far more valuable than all of these possessions.
God bestowed on Judah a treasure greater than any other on the face of the
earth, in the history of the world.
"What, then is the prerogative of the Jew, or what the benefit of
circumcision? Much in every manner... For first, indeed, that they were
entrusted with the oracles of God" (Rom. 3:1-2).
Prerogative is translated from [Gk. perisson’ EXCESS, SUPERABUNDANTLY] Who
has a diamond collection, an art collection, a string of corporations, or fifty
Swiss Bank accounts that could begin to approach the value of the oracles of
God?
"For what nation is there so great, who hath God so nigh unto them, as the
Lord our God is in all things..." (Deu. 4:7).
"He sheweth His word unto Jacob, his statutes and His judgment unto Israel"
(Psa. 147:19)
"Ye worship ye know not what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of
the Jews" (Jn 4:22)
So not only was Judah rich materially, but God bestowed on Judah His very
word, and through Judah the very salvation of the world. Who but Judah possessed
such wealth?
"...and he dressed in purple..."
Imagine Christ asking His disciples: "Oh, by the way, would you fellows be
interested in knowing what color clothing this Rich man was wearing just before
he went to Hell?" Ridiculous nonsense!
But what is nonsense in the literal is the symbolic sign of this man’s real
identity!
Purple is: "A color used in garments of a bluish red, by a dye obtained from
a shell fish, purpura. It denotes rank of royalty" (Greek-English Keyword
Concordance p. 236).
Purple was worn by Kings (Judges 8:26). Even the Caesars of Rome wore Purple
as a symbol of their royalty.
And who was to carry the royal line in Israel?... Judah.
"The scepter [a symbol of rulership and power] shall not depart from Judah,
now a lawgiver from between his feet, until Shiloh come..." (Gen. 49:10).
David was of the Tribe of Judah and was anointed King of Judah. Our Lord was
of the line of Judah (Mat. 1:2), and will be not only King of Judah, but King of
Kings over all the world.
During our Lord’s ministry, Judea was under Roman rule, however, there were
still rulers in Judea--The Jews. There were Scribes, Pharisees, and Priests.
Jesus said they had power and authority from God. "The scribes and the Pharisees
sit in Moses’ seat: all therefore whatsoever they bid you observe, that observe
and do..." (Mat. 23:2-3).
God has always elevated Judah above the other Tribes.
In I Chron. 2:1-3 we read:
"These are the sons of Israel; Reuben, Simeon, Levi, and Judah, Issachar, and
Zebulun, Dan, Joseph, and Benjamin, Naphtali, Gad, and Asher. The sons of
Judah;..."
Notice Judah was the third born to Israel [Jacob] and is listed third, but
when God gives their children’s names He starts first with Judah.
To show Judah’s dominance in Rulership, when the Tribes of Israel are
enumerated in Revelation 7:4, Judah is put first at the head of the list. He was
not, however, the firstborn!
"...and cambric (fine linen)..."
The Rich man didn’t just dress in "Purple," but "Purple and Cambric." He wore
both. Cambric or Fine Linen is symbolic of the clothing that the priests wore
(Ex. 28:5, 25:4). And of the interior decorations of the Tabernacle itself (Ex.
26:1).
Our Lord would not have told us that the Rich man wore these two specific
types of garments except that they have great symbolic value in identifying who
this man personifies.
But if "Purple" symbolizes "Royalty" and "Fine Linen" symbolizes
"Priesthood," how can the same man wear both? Only our Lord is both, King and
Priest.
Remember, the Levites and the priests were loyal to Judah through their long
history.
When they got the opportunity, they went with Ezra and Nehemiah back to
Jerusalem--back to Judah. They were part of Judah. They were called Jews. Only
one, had both the Scepter and the Priesthood: Judah.
Notice this Scripture carefully:
"Then rose up the chief of the fathers of Judah and Benjamin, and the
priests, and the Levites ... God had raised, to go up to build the house of the
Lord which is in Jerusalem." (Ezra 1:3).
There it is! Judah had both the royalty and the priesthood. And all these
leaders of Judah, Benjamin, and Levi, became who were known in Christ’s time as
"the Jews." And that’s why, although the Apostle Paul was of the Tribe of
Benjamin, nonetheless, he said of himself, that he was "a Jew."
In Judah were both the Royal Scepter (purple) and the Priesthood (fine
linen). And that’s the reason Christ took the time to tell us what the Rich man
was wearing! And no other personality in Scripture has both these designations
along with all the other identifying features attributed to the Rich man!
Father Abraham "...Child, be reminded..."
Judah could therefore legitimately call Abraham, "Father." Abraham was
Judah’s Great Grandfather. Abraham could legitimately call the Rich man,
"Child." Judah was Abraham’s Great Grandchild.
"They have Moses and the Prophets..."
The Kingdom of Judah did have "Moses and the Prophets." They were the
protectors and scribes of those very documents till the time of our Lord’s
ministry, when Jesus said that they "sit in Moses’ seat." Judah was the very
depository for The Law (Moses), The Prophets, and the Writings. Remember the
Oracles were given to the Jews (Rom. 3:1-2).
The Rich man said: "I have five brothers..."
There’s a rule of Scripture study that is very sound, and I believe is
applicable here. It goes like this: "Literal where and when possible." Most of
this parable cannot be taken literally. Why? Because for one, it often
contradicts the laws of science and physics. And two, it would contradict
hundreds of other plain verses of Scripture. It’s the "parable" that cannot be
taken literally. That does not mean that certain facts contained "in" the
parable are not "literal." Abraham is, undoubtedly, "literally" Abraham. Moses
and the prophets are, undoubtedly, "literally" Moses and the prophets. They
obviously represent themselves, not someone else.
With that in mind, who was it who had literally five brothers? Not that these
"five brothers" cannot represent something else in the Scriptures. For example,
there were five spheres where there were "Jews" who heard Christ proclaimed
after His resurrection:
Jerusalem
Judea
Samaria
The "limits of the land"
Those Jews dispersed "among the nations."
At first glance, you might think Judah can’t be this "Rich man." Didn’t Judah
have eleven brothers? Yes and No. True, there were twelve sons of Israel, one of
which was Judah, but not all by the same mother.
Judah’s Mother, Leah, had
Reuben
Simeon
Levi
Issachar
Zebulun
Judah makes six (Gen. 29:31-35, 30:18-19).
So who had five brothers? Judah.
That Judah (the Jews), is here personified in this Rich man, there can be
little doubt!
But who then is this "Lazarus?"
ABRAHAM’S BOSOM
The answer is not far to find when we see where he is: "in Abraham’s bosom."
Being in someone’s bosom shows a very close emotional relationship and position
of honor. Christ likens Himself as being in the "bosom" of His Father (Jn 1:18).
And John, likewise, who was very fond of Jesus leaned back into Jesus’ bosom (Jn
13:23). To be in the bosom of Abraham, or the bosom of Christ, or the bosom of
the Father, are certainly positions of great honor.
The Jews coveted that relationship with Abraham. They were so proud of their
Father Abraham. They knew that God thought highly of their Father Abraham, and
they wanted to be connected to that lofty position themselves. However, they did
not come even close to qualifying for such an honor. They loved to say: "We have
Abraham for our father!" But as Christ told them, they didn’t do the works of
faith that their Father Abraham did.
So Judah is not in the bosom of Abraham, but Lazarus is. Why? Who is this
"Lazarus" that he should have such a lofty position of honor with the Father of
the faithful?
I said earlier that the Jews, undoubtedly, understood who Christ was
referring to in both the Rich man and Lazarus. Remember that the Jews of
Jerusalem knew Hebrew. Their scriptures were written in Hebrew. And they were a
lot closer to these symbols and the Hebrew language than we are today.
"And Abram said, Lord God, what wilt thou give me, seeing I go childless, and
the steward of my house is this Eliezer of Damascus? And Abram said
"Behold, to me thou hast given no seed; and, lo, one born in my house is mine
heir." (Gen. 15:2-3).
In chapter 13 God had already promised great land and possessions to Abram’s
seed. But Abram had no seed!
Abram told God that since he had no son, his chief steward, Eliezer, would be
his heir and inherit all that was his.
Eliezer was so faithful a steward to Abraham that he was planning to make him
his heir and give Eliezer all his possessions and inheritance. Eliezer would
have been wealthy. He would have inherited the "promised land." He would have
received the "oracles of God" Ah, but no, God had different plans. Abraham would
have a son Isaac who would continue the Abrahamic line.
It appears that Eliezer will be left out. He lost his one big claim to fame.
Now he’s just a Gentile from Damascus. All his generations will be Gentiles
(dogs). Eliezer knew he would inherit all of Abraham’s posessions one day. And
now, that’s all gone. But he remains faithful.
Eliezer had ample opportunity to do away with Isaac on any number of
occassions, but he remained faithful to Abraham. He even took a journey to get a
wife for Isaac. Every step of faith and obedience that Eliezer took removed him
just that much further from the inheritance he always thought would be his. He
did all that a faithful steward should do. But every step of faithful obedience
to Abraham caused his inheritance to slip further away.
Imagine just how faithful and trustworthy a steward would have to be for
Abraham to leave ALL his possessions to him. Abraham was extremely rich. Why
look for "another" to pass these blessings onto? Eliezer has already proved
himself faithful. Abraham had already concluded that Eliezer was the only
logical heir:
"This Eliezer of Demascus ... born in my house IS MINE HEIR" (Gen.
15:2-3)
It appears that either Eliezer becomes Abraham’s heir, or he receives
nothing. Absolutely no spiritual promises or possessions were ever made by God
to Eliezer If he is not to get Abraham’s inheritance, which included all that
Abraham already had plus all that God is about to bless him with on top of all
his other possessions, then Eliezer is going to be poor as far as spiritual
blessings are concerned. As a Gentile, all he can ever hope for are the
spiritual "crumbs" that fall from the Rich man’s table. Not to fear: Through
faith God works many miracles.
FAITH OF THE GENTILES
"Now the woman was a Greek, a native of Syro-Phoenicia [A Gentile], and she
asked Him that He should be casting the demon out of her daughter. Yet Jesus
said to her, ‘Let first the children [The Jews] be satisfied, for it is not
ideal to take the children’s bread and cast it to the dogs.’ Yet she answered
and is saying to Him, ‘Yes, Lord, For the dogs also, underneath the table, are
eating the scraps from the little children.’ And He said to her, ‘Because of
this saying, go. The demon has come out of your daughter.’" (Mk. 6:27-29).
So clearly this Syro-Phoenician woman was not asking for a small portion of
food (crumbs or scraps), but rather a small portion of Christ’s spiritual
blessing. And clearly, Lazarus does not represent a street beggar in need of a
small portion of food. He personifies something much greater than one single
beggar in the street.
When Christ entered Capernaum a centurion [a Roman, a Gentile] asked Christ
to heal his boy. Christ said He would come. The Centurion said He need only to
"say the word" and he would trust Christ for the healing!
"When Jesus heard it, He marveled, and said to them that followed, ‘Verily I
say unto you I have not found so great faith no, not in Israel’" (Mat.
8:5-10).
Why then, are the Gentiles relegated to "dogs?" Not in all Israel did our
Lord find such faith as in these GENTILE "DOGS!" But "Judah" gets all the
blessings while the "Gentile" dogs get the crumbs? Ah, just when we think things
are going bad and God isn’t fair, He shows us His strange and marvelous wisdom!
As Paul Harvey says, "And now for the rest of the story..." What was Christ’s
response to this marvelous exhibition of faith by the Centurion?
"And I say unto you, That many shall come from the east and the west
[Gentiles], and shall sit down with Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, in the
Kingdom of Heaven, but the children of the kingdom [Judah--the Jews] shall be
cast into outer darkness: there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth" (Mat.
8:11-12).
Christ is not telling us that "Jews" from the East and "Jews" from the West
will sit down with Abraham, but that the "Jews" shall be cast out." That’s
contradictory. It’s the "Jews" who are the "children of the kingdom" who are
"cast out." And those from the East and West are "GENTILES." Christ is telling
us who these "many" are because He is commenting on the faith that God has given
to this Centurion Gentile.
LAZARUS IDENTIFIED
Christ rarely spoke of the Gentiles in His ministry. But He did speak of
them. And, although, He said He was sent only to the Lost Sheep of the House of
Israel, in His human ministry, He nonetheless, was making provisions for the
Gentiles, as in this prophetic statement. As Christ’s disciples were to be like
"salt" to the earth, this Syro-Phoenician woman, Cornelius of the Italian
squadron, the Roman Centurion, the Samaritan woman at the well, and others were
certainly like "salt" among the Jews. The very first sermon of Christ’s ministry
foretold the calling of the Gentiles, and it nearly cost Christ His life (Luke
4:13-30).
When it comes to God’s blessings, faith is thicker than blood.
God has not "cast off" the Gentiles!
So we find "Lazarus" [Gk: helpless] begging scraps from a rich man’s table.
Can "helpless" find "help?" Will God have mercy on him just as He did the
Syro-Phoenician woman and the Centurion? Yes!
"LAZARUS" IS "ELIEZER"!!
The Greek "Lazarus" is from Lazaros [Heb. HELPLESS].
But in Hebrew "Lazarus" is Elazar or "Eliezer" from el [God] and azar
[HELP]!
If Lazarus knew his Hebrew name, he would have known that help was on the
way. The "God of Help" had already planned this whole marvelous drama from the
time of Abraham.
Just as the Jews can look to their ancient "father" Abraham as a sterling
example of faith in God, so now, likewise, can the Gentiles Look to Abraham’s
Steward, Eliezer as a "father" of rare faith. Truly there is no partiality with
God--it only appears that way when we let the relative get in the way of the
absolute.
It is the Gentiles that God is primarily dealing with today! Paul says there
is to be only a "remnant" of Jews. His calling was to the nations. However, Paul
knew that God was still calling a "few" of the Jews. "If by any means I may
provoke to emulation them which are my flesh [Jews], and might save some of
them" (Rom. 11:14).
For nearly two thousand years now God is calling primarily the Gentiles..
GOD’S CALL IS NOW TO THE GENTILES
Lazarus [Eliezer] was: "...cast at his [Rich man’s] gate [portal]..."
It was the "Gentiles" who were not allowed into the Royal and Priestly House
of Judah. They could go no further than "The court of the Gentiles." Any
blessings they received had to come to them from inside where they were never
allowed to go! Though designated as "proselytes," they were, nonetheless, like
"dogs" who only got the "crumbs" or scraps! Hence we find Lazarus cast "at the
gate."
Little could these Jews hearing this parable realize that in just a few short
years all this would change.
"Yet now, in Christ Jesus, you [Gentiles], who once are far off are become
near by the blood of Christ. For He is our Peace, Who makes both one, and razes
the central wall of the barrier [middle wall of partition] ... He brings the
evangel of peace to you [Gentiles] ... for through Him we both [Jews and
Gentiles] have had the access, in one spirit to the Father" (Eph. 2:13-18).
And so today, the Gentiles don’t have to stand outside the gate, or be
separated by a barrier, or stay in their own court, and wait for handouts. They
have direct access to God.
And who has been preaching the Evangel for the past two thousand years? The
Jews? Hardly. It has been the Gentiles that have translated the Scriptures into
nearly every language on earth. It is those called of the Gentiles that are
accepting Christ Jesus as their Savior, not the Jews. It is really a rare thing
to find Jews accepting Christ as the Messiah. And that’s why we find Lazarus
[Eliezer--the Gentiles] in the bosom of Abraham, and the Rich man [the Jews]
engulfed in flames of Anti-Semitism for the past two thousand years.
"...having ulcers [full of sores]..."
Lazarus is not full of sores in Abraham’s bosom. He has been healed. In fact,
that’s what "salvation" meant in New Testament times. "Salvation" is a beautiful
sounding Latin word, however, it was never part of the New Testament Greek
Vocabulary. Not until six or eight centuries ago did the word "salvation" come
into translations. Before that time it was "health" that was one’s salvation.
And all of the very oldest Anglo-Saxon Scriptures translate it "health" not
"salvation." So for Lazarus "health" in the bosom of Abraham was salvation!
Lazarus doesn’t represent materialistically poor Jews, but spiritually poor
Gentiles. That’s the whole point here in the parable. Judah was rich and knew
it! They were like the Laodiceans who said:
"I am rich, and increased with goods, and have need of nothing; and knowest
not that thou art wretched, and miserable, and poor, and blind, and naked" (Rev.
3:17).
"...Father Abraham, be merciful to me, and send Lazarus that he should be
dipping the tip of his finger in water..."
In figurative and symbolic language the Rich man asks for a drop of water on
the tip of Lazarus’ finger. How appropriate! Who was it that refused to help the
"poor" with so much as their little finger?
"For they [Judah] bind heavy burdens and grievous to be borne, and lay them
on men’s shoulders; but they themselves will not move them with one of their
fingers" (Mat. 23:4).
"...and spake unto Rehoboam [King of Judah], saying, ... make thou the
grievous service of thy father, and his heavy yoke which he put upon us,
lighter, and we will serve thee. But he forsook the counsel of the old men ...
My little finger shall be thicker than my father’s loins ... my father hath
chastised you with whips, but I will chastise you with scorpions" (I Kg.
12:7:11).
Now Judah begs the assistance of a finger from a poor man! And not just a
poor man, but a poor Gentile! It was custom for pious Jews to cut a section of
their garment off if it were so much as touched by the finger of a Gentile. Now
the rich and lofty personification of God’s chosen people begs for the
assistance of a Gentile FINGER.
"God is not to be sneered at, for whatsoever a man may be sowing, this shall
he be reaping also" (Gal. 67).
"...and cooling my tongue..."
It isn’t his flesh that he wants cooled from this flame, but his tongue. This
man is frightened. His tongue is swelling. And well it should be. When people
are petrified from fear their tongue dries and swells. That’s why some
inexperienced speakers often need a whole glass of water just to get through a
10 minute speech.
David said:
"By the rivers of Babylon, there we sat down, yea, we wept, when we
remembered Zion" (Psa. 137:1)
Well, God brought Judah back from Babylon to Jerusalem, but Judah didn’t have
the same heart as King David. He failed to remember. David said:
"...let my tongue cleave to the roof of my mouth ... if I forget to remember
Jerusalem."
It was because of Judah’s "tongue" that Jerusalem was destroyed in the first
place:
"For Jerusalem is ruined, and Judah is fallen; because their TONGUE and their
doings are against the Lord..." (Isa. 3:8).
So in the parable we find Lazarus (Eliezer--a Gentile) in the bosom of
Abraham, and Judah, who should be there, on the other side asking for mercy. But
Lazarus can’t come over to the Rich man even if he wanted to, because of this
"chasm."
"And in all this, between us and you a great chasm [gulf] has been
established."
WHAT IS THE GREAT GULF?
Earlier I showed you from the Greek that there is water in this gulf or
chasm. What could this be all about? Certainly there is no literal chasm between
hades (unseen) and Abraham’s bosom. What or where is this great chasm? Does the
Bible speak of a great chasm that has anything to do with salvation or
rewards?
When the Children of Israel made their exodus out of Egypt, they were on
their way to the Promised Land. After receiving the Ten Commandments at Mt
Sinai, where they stayed approximately one year, they headed north to
Kadeshbarnea. They sent men to spy out the land. They were very close to Canaan.
But God sentenced them to thirty-nine more years in the wilderness for their
unbelief. How different they were from their ancient Father Abraham. After
thirty-nine years they again headed north, only this time through Edom and Moab
and approached the Jordan from the East. To get to the Promised Land they had to
cross over the Jordan River Valley.
The River Jordan runs through a great chasm (or gulf).
From Mt. Nebo Moses could see the Promised Land. The Jordan is in a huge
chasm. It’s a "far" way to the other side. This chasm, in fact, is so large that
it may well be one of the largest fault lines on earth! It starts on the
southern boundaries of Turkey and runs through Palestine, through the Dead sea,
trough the Red Sea, through Africa to Lake Victoria. But some scientists and
geologists believe it continues through Africa and the South Pole and reemerges
again in the Pacific Ocean. Now that’s a "Great Chasm."
Because of Moses’ sin, God did not allow him to enter the Promised Land.
Crossing "over Jordan" has always been used symbolically as a type of
"salvation." But just as Israel couldn’t cross the Red Sea except by a miracle
of parting the waters, so too, God supernaturally dried up the Jordan so that
they could cross over. So literally, they didn’t "get wet" crossing the Jordan;
they didn’t "get baptized." And neither did most of the rulers of the Jews "get
baptized" at John’s baptisms either!
It is always "God" who determines boundaries. Moses could not cross that
chasm. And no one else could cross over except it were God’s intention. Just as
Israel looked to the crossing over Jordan as their salvation in a new land, so
we too, are looking for a future complete manifestation in Kingdom of God. And
God alone determines who will and who won’t be in that Kingdom at this time.
In a real sense we too go into the Kingdom of God by way of the Jordan! Jesus
was baptized in the River Jordan (Mat. 3:13). And
"...whoever are baptized into Christ Jesus, are baptized into His death. We,
then were entombed together with Him through baptism into death ... For if we
have become planted together in the likeness of His death, nevertheless we shall
be of the resurrection also..." (Rom. 6:4-5).
Mortality kept the majority of Israelites from entering the Promised Land.
The generation that started on this journey died in the wilderness. Only a
remnant crossed over Jordan under the leadership of Joshua. And likewise, today,
God is calling only a "remnant" to salvation:
"God does not thrust away His people whom He foreknew ... Thus, then, in the
current era also, there has come to be a remnant according to the choice of
grace" (Rom. 11:2 & 5).
Mortality kept most of Israel out of the promised land, and by immortality we
will enter the Kingdom of God in full spiritual glory:
"Lo! a secret ... we all shall be changed ... at the last trump ... the dead
will be roused ... this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal
put on immortality (I Cor. 15:51-53).
And we enter the Kingdom under the new Joshua (Jesus) the Christ!
No matter what this gulf or chasm symbolizes, it is only "man" who cannot
cross it. Nothing is impossible with God. And God has given His Son authority
over EVERYTHING. It is blasphemy to even think that there is a gulf that cannot
be bridged by the Almighty Jesus Christ!
Though not a place of eternal torture in fire, there is, nonetheless, a realm
called "hades." It is an enemy of man and there are "gates" (not literal iron
bar gates, but gates in the sense that passage is restricted to all who go
therein). There are also gates and bars and locked doors in human prisons and
penitentiaries.
But there are guards and wardens who have "keys" to these doors and
gates--they CAN BE OPENED. Well guess what? There are also "keys" to the gates
of hades and it is NOT SATAN WHO POSSESSES THEM! IT IS NOT SATAN WHO HAS POWER
OVER LIFE AND DEATH AND RESURRECTION! Rev. 1:18:
"And I [Jesus] have the keys to hell [hades, the unseen] and of death."
It is senseless to boast in having "the keys" if those keys will never be
used to open the locks on the gates! Not only does Christ have the keys to all
doors, HE IS THE DOOR! When we enter HIS door, He enters OUR door and we dine
together. One day Judah will knock on Christ’s door and He WILL OPEN to
them.
Let’s read the good news:
"...I will make a NEW Covenant with the house of Israel, and the house of
Judah...For this is the Covenant that I WILL MAKE [future tense] with the house
of Israel AFTER THOSE DAYS [those days of blindness and unregenerate hearts
crying out from the symbolic gates of hades], saith the Lord; I will put my Laws
INTO THEIR MINDS, AND WRITE THEM IN THEIR HEARTS; and I will be to them a God,
and they shall be to me a people" (Heb. 8:8-10).
Judah had the "promises," the "Oracles" of God, the "Royalty," the
"Priesthood," the "Seat of Moses," the "Temple of God," the "Ark of the
Covenant," enormous "wealth and riches," the "Possession of the Land," and the
prophesied "Messiah." But they crucified their only Savior! For this they will
certainly go through many "tormenting" trials and afflictions, but the fire of
God’s Holy Spirit will cleanse them of their sins and they WILL BE SAVED--ALL OF
THEM!
"And thus ALL Israel shall be saved..." (Rom. 11:26)
So sad that the Scriptures are not believed and the gospel rarely preached.
People accuse me continually of teaching that unbelievers, and evil unrepentant
and unregenerate sinners will be saved in THAT condition. I have never even
suggested such a repugnant thing. God WILL CHANGE THEM. And it all begins in THE
HEART! They will repent at the goodness of God.
"And thus ALL Israel shall be saved, according as it is written, Arriving out
of Zion shall be the Rescuer [that’s CHRIST!]. He WILL be turning away
irreverence from Jacob [Jacob includes Israel and Judah], And this is My
Covenant with them whenever I SHOULD BE ELIMINATING THEIR SINS" (Rom. 11:26-27).
If we would but believe these simple and profound Scriptures there would
never be such distortions of God’s Word being taught as is the case with this
parable.
THE RICH MAN’S SIN
"And in the unseen [hades], lifting up his eyes, existing in torments..."
Judah [the Jews] proved to be totally unworthy of their high calling. Their
heart’s turned from the declarations of God. Claiming Abraham as their father
did not exonerate them either.
"‘Our father is Abraham.’ Jesus answered them, ‘If you are children of
Abraham, did you ever do the works of Abraham? Yet now you are seeking to kill
me, a Man Who has spoken to you the truth..." (John 8:39-20)!
Not only were they no longer "...of the faith of Abraham," but they had, in
fact, utterly corrupted themselves. After King David, Solomon broke God
commandments and covenant (I Kg 11:11).
King Rehoboam said:
"And now whereas my father did lade you with a heavy yoke, I will add to your
yoke; my father hath chastised you with whips, but I will chastise you with
scorpions" (I Kg. 12:10-11).
"...Judah kept not the commandments of the Lord..." (II Kg. 19:17)
And King Manasseh, of Judah, went from bad to worse:
"...he did that which was evil in the sight of the Lord after the
abominations of the heathen ... he built up again the high places which Hezekiah
his father had destroyed ... he built altars in the house of the Lord ... he
built altars for all the host of heaven in the two courts of the house of the
Lord. And he made his sons pass through the fire, and observed times, and used
enchantments, and dealeth with familiar spirits and wizards; he wrought much
wickedness ... Manasseh seduced them to do more evil than did the nations whom
the Lord destroyed..." (II Kg. 21:2-9).
"Judah hath dealt treacherously, and an abomination is committed in Israel
and in Jerusalem; for Judah has profaned the holiness of the Lord which He
loved, and hath married the daughter of a strange god." (Mal. 2:11).
HISTORIC AND PROPHETIC JUDAH
According to a "literal" teaching of this parable, the Rich man did nothing
to deserve his torment. But once we identify this Rich man, however, we find a
mountain of sins and evils that are attributed to him:
When John the baptist saw these same descendants of the Jews, the Pharisees
and Sadducees coming to his baptisms, he remarked: "progeny of vipers."
Our Lord used the most derogatory language possible in describing the Jews of
the first century:
"O generation of vipers, how can ye, being evil, speak good..." (Mat.
12:34)!
"And evil and adulterous generation seeketh after a sign..." (Mat.
12:39)!
"Why do ye also transgress the commandment of God..." (Mat. 15:3)!
"O faithless and perverse generation..." (Mat. 17:17)!
"...John came unto you in the way of righteousness, and ye believed him
not..." (Mat. 21:32)!
"Why tempt ye me, Ye hypocrites?" (Mat. 22:17)!
"But all their works they do for to be seen of men..." (Mat. 23:5)!
"But woe unto you, Scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! (Ver 13)!
"...ye shut up the kingdom of heaven against men; for ye neither go in
yourselves, neither suffer ye them that are entering to go in." (Ver 13)!
"...for ye devour widows’ houses..." (Ver 14).
"Woe unto you scribes and Pharisees, Hypocrites! for ye compass sea and land
to make one proselyte, and when he is made, ye make him twofold morethe child of
gehenna than yourselves" (Ver 15).
"Woe unto you, ye blind guides..." (Ver. 16).
"Ye fools and blind..." (Ver. 17).
"Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye pay tithe of the
mint and the anise and cummin, and have omitted the weightier matters of the
law, judgment, mercy, and faith..." (Ver. 23).
"Ye blind guides, which strain at a gnat and swallow a camel. (Ver. 25)
"Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! ... whited sepulchres ...
full of dead men’s bones, and of all uncleanness" (Ver. 27)
"Wherefore ye be witnesses unto yourselves, that ye are the children of them
which killed the prophets. Ye serpents. Ye generation of vipers..." (22-23)
"I send unto you prophets, and wise men, and scribes; and some of them ye
shall kill and crucify; and some of them shall ye scourge in your Synagogues,
and persecute them from city to city; That upon you may come all the righteous
blood shed upon the earth..." (Ver. 34-35).
"BEHOLD YOUR HOUSE IS LEFT UNTO YOU DESOLATE (Ver. 38)!!
Yes, there is more than ample reason for "Judah" finding himself in a "place
of torment!" Can we see how God combines them all together? Christ said:
"Ye are the children of them which killed the prophets" and "Ye fill up then
the measure of your fathers" (Ver. 32).
So why shouldn’t Christ picture the Jews in hades viewing this disaster of
their race? Of course it is figurative! God often uses just such figurative
language
"...he voice of thy brother’s blood crieth unto me from the ground" (Gen.
4:10)
In Revelation chapter 6 the dead souls of those slain for the Word of God are
crying out. This too is figurative. God wouldn’t allow His Conscious Saints to
be all piled up on a bloody heap under an altar for thousands of years. Jonah
was literally in "...the fish’s belly" (Jonah 2:1), but figuratively he called
it "...the belly of hell [sheol=IMPERCEPTIBLE]" (Jonah 2:2).
And so we have the Rich man (Judah) "crying out from hades." Figuratively, it
has great emotional power. The Jews corrupted themselves. In the person of Judah
they see the result of their ways. Notice that the Rich man never said one word
in his own defense. He knew what kind of a people he was. I find it hard to
believe what I am reading when I see the terminology our Lord used against the
Jews and their forefathers. Really, consider His words: adulterous, evil,
transgressors, faithless, perverse, hypocrites, murderers, blind guides, fools,
generation of snakes.
The Jews were given so much by God, but showed ever so little appreciation to
God! They have suffered like few races of people have ever suffered. Lazarus, on
the other hand, lived an untarnished life of faithfulness, and yet is promised
nothing from God--neither material blessings nor spiritual blessings. In life he
received "evil things." Abraham considered him worthy of inheriting all his
possessionis. God, on the other hand, disinherited him. This was an "evil" to
Eliezer. It was God’s wisdom in bringing this evil on Eliezer.
Little did these Jews know at the time that Christ spoke this parable, that
it would be only thirty some years future that their beloved Jerusalem would
once again be destroyed. But this time, God would also take from them the Temple
and the Ark of the Covenant as well. And little did the Gentiles know that Saul
[Paul] was already being prepared to take God’s spiritual blessings "to the
nations." It will be Eliezer himself who will be the first Gentile to not only
justify God in His actions, but glorify Him for the marvelous blessings that God
has bestowed on the Gentiles.
For nearly two thousand years the Jews have been without the ark of the
covenant or a Temple. The Jews have wandered from country to country for
centuries never even having a country they could call their own until 1948 They
have been persecuted everywhere they lived! This greatest persecution and
slaughter took place during Hitler’s death camps when reportedly six to seven
million Jews were exterminated!
The Rich man said " I am tormented in this flame." If one checks all the
parables it becomes evident that most of them were prophecies. And therefore
"flames" is most appropriate in describing the plight of the Jews through the
millennia. Not just the "Flames of Anti-Semitism," but even literally--remember
"Hitler’s ovens?"
I remember the words of a Jewish teenager after the Holocaust, bemoaning:
"The world stood still while the Jews burned. The pain! The pain!" Yes, Judah is
still crying out from the unseen.
And so the Rich man’s thoughts turn to "his father’s house" and his "five
brothers." What will happen to them? Even if they didn’t hear Moses and the
prophets, surely, if "someone should be going to them from the dead, they will
be repenting."
"Yet he said to him, ‘If Moses and the prophets they are not hearing, neither
will they be persuaded if someone should be rising from among the dead.’"
Well how could Abraham know that for a fact? Because it is really Christ who
is speaking, and it’s a parable, and it also is a prophecy of things to come,
and Christ knows all.
Ironically, the only person ever resurrected from the dead that we know by
"name" at this time was Martha’s brother Lazarus. Did that miracle persuade the
Jews? Actually, yes, many.
"Many of the Jews, then, who came to Mary and gaze at what Jesus does,
believe in Him" (Jn 11:45).
Yet when other Jews reported this miracle back to the Pharisees
"From that day, they [the Jewish leaders] consult that they should kill Him"
(Jn. 11:53)!
It seems like it’s always the religious leaders that have the most trouble
believing!
But how many of these "many who believed" stayed faithful? When Christ began
teaching them really "spiritual things," many could not handle it. Christ told
them that "The flesh is not benefiting anything" (Jn 6:63). That was more than
they would tolerate as most "Christians" today do not tolerate such a thought
either, and therefore:
"From that time many of His disciples went back, and walked NO MORE with Him"
(Jn. 6:65-66)!
This parable, however, is not speaking about Lazarus’ resurrection, but
Christ’s resurrection from the dead. All of Judea did not know of the
resurrection of Lazarus, but everyone heard about the resurrection of Jesus
Christ. Not only the Jewish leaders who killed Him, but all Jerusalem, all of
the Rich man’s brothers and everywhere the descendants of his brothers were
scattered: (1) Jerusalem, (2) Judea, (3) Samaria, (4) The limits of the land
(Acts 1:8), and (5) to the dispersed among the nations. And the message sent to
all these Jews, everywhere, was that the Christ whom they crucified has risen
from the dead.
JEWS STILL REJECT JESUS
Judah did not obey God through most of their long history. The Jews as a
nation did not repent at the preaching of John the Baptist. They killed their
own Savior!
"Let all the house of Israel know certainly, then, that God Makes Him Lord as
well as Christ--this Jesus Whom you [Jews] crucify!" (Acts 2:36).
But Christ forgave them before He even died:
"Father, forgive them; for they know not what they do" (Luke 23:34).
He commissioned his apostles to herald the good news of His resurrection and
the coming Kingdom of God to them again, but again, as a nation, the Jews
rejected Him.
So now what? So then Christ calls Saul to be "Paul." And so Paul preaches and
teaches in Jerusalem. And what kind of reception did Paul and his message
receive?
"Now he [Paul] argued in the synagogue on every sabbath ... Paul was pressed
in the word, certifying to the Jews that Jesus is the Christ. Now at their [the
Jews] resisting and blaspheming, shaking out his garments, he said to them,
‘Your blood be on your head! Clear am I! From now on I SHALL GO TO THE NATIONS"
(Acts 18:4-6).
Just as Christ prophesied
"...neither will they be persuaded if someone should be rising from among the
dead."
The Scriptures do plainly state that the Jews shall yet find salvation
through Christ’s Sacrifice, because it was God who blinded them in the first
place so that they would not and could not understand and repent! Isaiah
prophesied that they would not repent and so Christ did not heal them (Mat.
13:1915). "...us [Gentiles], whom He calls also, not only out of the Jews, but
out of the nations also..." (Rom.. 9:24). And
"I shall be calling those who are not My people [poor and wretched people
like Lazarus--Gentiles] ‘My people,’" (Rom. 9:25).
Yes ALL PEOPLE will be GOD’S PEOPLE!
If that thought doesn’t bring joy to our hearts, I don’t know what could. And
"I became disclosed to those [Gentiles] who are not inquiring for Me" (Rom.
10:20).
Since the time that Paul said "From now on I shall go to the nations," the
Jews have, except for rare and individual cases, rejected Christ risen from the
dead. But millions of poor rejected people like Lazarus have been brought into
Abraham’s bosom, into a close and intimate relationship with God Himself.
THE BLIND CAN’T SEE
What about these Jews then? Is the Rich man [Judah, the Jews, the whole house
of Israel] going to suffer in a fancied Christian Hell of devils and flames of
torment for all eternity? Why can’t we believe the Scriptures? And not just one
or two, but hundreds and thousands of Scriptures that point to the fact that all
is of God. God is operating all.
Many years ago I learned something most profound: "The ‘blind’ can’t
see!"
Not many theologians believe that. Surely, if we present it in just the right
way, they will see. No, they won’t. If they get sick enough of their life and
sins, then they will see. No, they won’t. If we tell them often enough and with
enough conviction, with hundreds of scriptures, and with charts and diagrams,
and with analogies and examples, surely then at least "some" of the blind will
see. No, they won’t. I’ll tell you why. Because the blind cannot see. I told you
it was profound. You can hold it closer to their face, you can shout, you can
shine a bright light on it. It doesn’t matter, "The blind can’t see!"
Christendom teaches that if people want to see and understand, then they can.
It's all up to them. No it’s not. I know people who are physically blind, and
they want to see, but they can’t because the blind can’t see.
When God Almighty "blinds" someone, they cannot see. I do not entertain any
such notion that this paper will persuade anyone who is blind, to see it’s
truth, unless God uses it to open their mind and remove the blindness. Let the
Scriptures speak:
"Does not God thrust away His people?... God DOES NOT thrust away His people
whom He fore knew" (Rom. 11:1-2).
"Thus, then, in the current era also, there has come to be a remnant
according to the choice [God’s choice] of grace" (Rom. 11:8).
"What Israel is seeking for, this she did not encounter, yet the chosen
[those God chose] encountered it. Now the rest [the rest of the Jews, all the
rest of Israel] were calloused..." (Rom. 11:7).
Who calloused them? Who is operating all? Now pay close attention to this
next verse. I just checked twenty-six translations and the Greek Text to be sure
I’m right on this point, and they all say same the same thing.
"GOD gives them a spirit of stupor, eyes not to be observing, and ears not to
be hearing, till this very day" (Rom. 11:8).
"Till this very day," was written 2000 years ago, and yet "till this very
day" today, as a race, as a nation, as a religion, and as a people, the Jews
have universally rejected their only Savior Jesus Christ.
Yes it was "God" Who did these things! Why would God do such a thing? Is
there some purpose to it all? Yes there is.
"But in their [the Jews] offense is the salvation of the nations, to provoke
them to jealousy (Rom. 11:11)
SALVATION OF THE RICH MAN (JUDAH & ISRAEL)
Well, since it was "God" who blinded the Jews and caste them away, will He
ever take them back and remove their blindness?
"For if their [the Jews] casting away is the conciliation of the world, what
will the TAKING BACK be if not life from among the dead?" (Rom. 11:15).
"...that callousness [by God Ver. 8], in part, on Israel has come, until the
complement of the nations may be entering. And thus ALL ISRAEL SHALL BE
SAVED..." (Rom. 11:26)!!
Look at Ezekiel 37 beginning in verse 13
"And ye shall know that I am the Lord when I have opened your graves, O my
people, and brought you up out of your graves." (Notice they come out of their
graves, not out of hell).
Ver. 14, "And shall put my spirit in you, and ye shall live..." (Notice they
shall "live." That means they were "dead," not alive in some hell).
Ver. 23, "Neither shall they defile themselves any more with their idols, nor
with their detestable things, nor with any of their transgressions; but I will
save them out of all their dwellingplaces, so shall they be my people, and I
will be their God."
Ver. 25, "And David my servant shall be king over them..."
GOD IS OPERATING ALL
How could anyone possibly believe any one of these verses and yet believe
that unbelieving Jews God will burn in Hell for all eternity. Let’s be
Scripturally honest here:
God blinded Israel (ver. 8).
God used their offense to bring salvation to the nations (ver. 11).
God caste Israel away so that He could conciliate the whole world (ver 15).
God will take back these unbelieving and sinning Jews (ver 15)
God will give them life from among the dead (ver. 15).
God will save all Israel (ver. 26).
God will not burn them in hell for all eternity, because they will be
sinless: "Whenever I should be eliminating their sins" (Ver. 27).
It is GOD Who is in control of the destiny of the human race, not MAN!
Perverting a parable to such gross extremes as to nullify hundreds of plain
and exact verses of Scripture (that are not parables) is a damnable thing!
Consigning billions and billions of human beings to an eternal Hell of torture
for all eternity is unspeakable. Not to mention totally unscriptural.
God’s punishments and chastisements are severe enough without multiplying
them a trillion times to the power of infinity. That is truly INSANE!
This parable, like all the others, has great and enormous consequences. This
is not the story of a single, nameless rich man and one poor beggar in the
street named Lazarus.
Christ preached the kingdom of God.
"I must preach the kingdom of God to other cities also: for therefore am I
sent" (Lk. 4:43).
Christ likened Himself to a "bridegroom" (Lk. 5:34). Now look at all of the
parables, and see how they point to the coming Kingdom of God when the
Bridegroom will make a great feast and hand out rewards or punishments according
to the "faithfulness" and "stewardship" or lack thereof, to His servants.
But time and again, those initially invited to this Great Feast are rejected
and those who had no claim to attend such a feast are invited in.
"Go out quickly into the streets and lanes of the city, and bring in hither,
the poor, and the maimed, and the halt, and the blind" (Lk. 14:21).
But, "...none of those men which were bidden shall taste of my supper" (Ver.
24).
How amazing the workings of our God are. First it looked like God had
forsaken the Gentiles--He did not. Then it looks like He has forsaken His own
people (the Jews)--He has not. It’s God’s way. This is God’s wisdom. And it is
so much higher than puny man’s ability to ever fully appreciate or comprehend.
When God removes all blindness, gives faith to believe, removes all sins, and
convicts the heart of the greatness of God and nothingness of our own selves,
ALL WILL BE PERSUADED! We can doubt it all we want, but we are not our own
achievement. But rather:
"For HIS achievement are we..." (Eph. 2:10)! "...our Saviour, God, Who WILLS
THAT ALL MANKIND BE SAVED and come into a realization of the truth" (I Tim.
2:4).
How dare any doubt God’s own ability to fulfill and accomplish His own will?
(See Isaiah 46:10-11).
FATHER OF THE FAITHFUL
If God cannot accomplish and fulfill His own will, what hope is there for us?
It is a gross lack of faith to believe that God will not accomplish His own
will. And whatsoever is not of faith is sin.
The reason Abraham is in this parable, is because Abraham is the "father" of
the faithful. Abraham BELIEVED GOD.
"By unbelief are they [the Jews] broken out, yet you stand in faith" (Rom
11:20).
Now listen to Paul’s admonition very carefully:
"Be not haughty, but fear" (Ver. 20).
"God parts to each the measure of faith" (Rom. 12:4).
Yet most Christians think faith is the one thing, for sure, that they must
contribute on their own to be saved. To believe such a thing is not only
unscriptural, but vane as well.
All of the haughty arrogance of Christendom would vanish over night if they
would just believe and comprehend this one beautiful and profound verse of
Scripture:
"Now what have you which you did not obtain? Now if you obtained it also, why
are you boasting as though not obtaining?" (I Cor. 4:7).
We must be thankful that God is calling us (the Gentiles), and to not be
haughty. Does any think that we are special but the cast-off Jews are not? No!
The Jews are very special to God. The Rich man asked for "mercy," and he will
yet receive mercy. "...God is able to graft them in again." (Rom. 11:24).
."For unregretted are the graces and the calling of God. For even as you once
were stubborn toward God, yet now were shown mercy at their stubbornness, thus
these also are now stubborn to this mercy of yours, that now they [the "Rich
man" and all his descendants--all Israel] may be shown mercy. For God locks up
all together in stubbornness, that He should be merciful to all [Jews and
Gentiles]. O, the depth of the riches and the wisdom and the knowledge of God!"
(Rom. 11:29-33).
God gave Abraham that kind of faith. God gave Eliezer that kind of faith.
Faith that doesn’t require substance, evidence, and proof. Every step of faith
that Eliezer took put him that much further from his inheritance. Eliezer’s
faith wasn’t in the "visible evidence," but in God. In Abraham’s case the
"evidence" (he and his wife’s old age) that God would give them seed, was a
faith destroyer. There was nothing in the visible evidence that would have given
anyone faith. Abraham’s faith wasn’t in "evidence" but in God. Children need
proof; the mature live by faith.
I am sure that there is much more that can and will be learned and understood
regarding this unique parable of Lazarus and the Rich man. However, whatever we
teach regarding it must at least stand on solid Scriptures and not contradict.
The real truth of this parable is not nearly as morbid as it may appear at first
glance. God has a plan that eventually brings all the Jews and all the Gentiles
to salvation. The very heart of the Gospel is the salvation of the Jews and
Gentiles, the salvation of the WHOLE WORLD!